GS – Quintessence Classes Pvt Ltd

2024
1) Consider the following statements regarding the legislative powers of the Parliament and the State Legislature:

Parliament has the authority to make laws for the entire territory of India or any part thereof.
ii. The State Legislature can make laws for the entire state or any part of it.
iii. Parliament has the power to enact extra-territorial legislation.
iv. Rajya Sabha can declare any subject from the State List to be of national interest by a resolution passed by a 2/3rd majority of its total membership.

Choose the correct answer:
A) i only
B) ii and iii only
C) i, ii, and iii only
D) i, iii, and iv
2) Consider the following statements about Money Bills:

The introduction of Money Bill can occur in the Rajya Sabha.
The Rajya Sabha does not have the power to amend or reject it.
The procedure for Money Bills includes the provision for a joint sitting of Parliament.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) None of the above
3) Consider the following statements regarding Starred and Unstarred Questions:

The response to Starred Questions is provided orally.
ii. The response to Starred Questions is given in written form.
iii. The response to Unstarred Questions is provided orally.
iv. The response to Unstarred Questions is given in written form.
v. Supplementary questions can be asked for Starred Questions.

Choose the correct answer:
A) i, iv, and v only
B) ii, iii, and v only
C) i and iii only
D) ii, iv, and v only
4) Which of the following are part of the Union List?

Duties in respect of succession to property other than agricultural land
ii. Corporation tax
iii. Taxes on agricultural income
iv. Taxes on income other than agricultural income

Choose the correct answer:
A) i and ii only
B) i, ii and iii only
C) i,ii and iv only
D) iii and iv only
5) Consider the following statements regarding the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution:

It has special provisions for the administration of tribal areas in four northeastern states: Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Manipur.
ii. The tribal areas in these states are governed as Autonomous Districts.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?
A) i only
B) ii only
C) Both
D) None of the above
6) Which of the following Parliamentary Committees is jointly elected by both Houses of Parliament?

A) Business Advisory Committee
B) Estimates Committee
C) Committee on Public Undertakings
D) Committee of Privileges

7) Consider the following functionaries:

Chief Election Commissioner
ii. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
iii. Judges of the Supreme Court
iv. Attorney General of India

Their correct sequence in the order of precedence is:
A) ii, iii, i,iv
B) i, iii, ii, iv
C) i, ii, iv, iii
D) i, iv, iii, ii
8) Who among the following were members of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?

B. R. Ambedkar
ii. Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar
iii. K. M. Munshi
iv. J. B. Kripalani

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) i and ii only
B) i, ii and iii only
C) i, ii and iv only
D) i, ii, iii and iv
9) With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

The CAG heads the Indian Audit and Accounts Department.
ii. The CAG holds office for a period of five years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
iii. His/Her duty is to uphold the Constitution and the laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) i only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iiii only
D) i, ii and iii
10) Consider the following Committees:

Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
ii. Ashok Mehta Committee
iii. L. M. Singhvi Committee
iv. Mannmohan Committee

How many of the above Committees is/are related to the Panchayati Raj system?
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) Only three
D) All four

Which of the following expenditures are listed as the expenditure ‘charged’ upon the Consolidated Fund of India?
i. Salaries and allowances of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
ii. Salaries and allowances of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
iii. Salaries, allowances and pensions of the Judges of the Supreme Court
iv. Salaries, allowances and pensions of the Chief Election Commissioner

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i ,ii and iii only
D) i, ii, iii and iv

Who made this statement: “Because of circumstances that have now come into being that it is federal or unitary, welfare states from being Police States have become, where it is for the economic well-being of the country, the States and the ultimate responsibility has become the paramount duty of the Centre”?
A) Rajendra Prasad
B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Bhimrao Ambedkar
D) T.T. Krishnamachari
With reference to Censure Motion, consider the following statements:
i. It can be moved against an individual minister only.
ii. If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the council of ministers must resign.
iii. It should state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) i only
B) ii only
C) Both i and ii
D) iii only

Below mentioned are four countries having largest Foreign Exchange Reserves in the world in October 2024. Arrange these countries in decreasing order of their Foreign Exchange Reserves:
i. India
ii. Japan
iii. China
iv. Switzerland

Choose the correct order:
A) i, ii, iv, iii
B) iv, i, iii, ii
C) iii, ii, iv, i
D) iii, iv, ii, i

Which of the following projects have been developed under the ‘Bharatmala Pariyojana’?
Delhi-Meerut Expressway
Eastern Peripheral Expressway
Chenani-Nashri tunnel
Ambala-Lucknow Expressway
Bengaluru-Mysuru Expressway

Choose the correct answer:
A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
B) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
C) 2, 3 and 4 only
D) 3, 4 and 5 only

Which of the following are the interventions under the ‘Rashtriya Kishor Swasthya Karyakram’ (RKSK) in India?
i. Weekly Iron Folic Acid Supplementation Programme
ii. Scheme for Promotion of Menstrual Hygiene among Adolescents
iii. Peer Educator Programme
iv. Adolescent Friendly Health Clinics
v. Janani Suraksha Yojana

Choose the correct answer:
A) i, ii, iii and iv only
B) i, iv and v only
C) i, iii, iv and v only
D) iii, iv and v only

In the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana, choose the correct order of the loan categories, from the lowest to the highest, in terms of the loan limits:
A) Shishu, Tarun, Kishor
B) Shishu, Kishor, Tarun
C) Tarun, Kishor, Shishu
D) Tarun, Shishu, Kishor
Arrange the following sources of revenue for the Government of India mentioned in the Union Budget of 2024-25 in descending order:
i. Goods & Service Tax and other taxes
ii. Borrowing and Other Liabilities
iii. Corporation tax
iv. Income Tax

Choose the correct answer:
A) i, ii, iii, iv
B) ii, iv, i ,iii
C) iv,iii,ii,i
D) iii, i,iv, ii

What are the limits of the Central Government Debt and the General Government Debt as per the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, respectively?
A) 40 percent of GDP and 60 percent of GDP, respectively
B) 30 percent of GDP and 55 percent of GDP, respectively
C) 35 percent of GDP and 50 percent of GDP, respectively
D) 20 percent of GDP and 49 percent of GDP, respectively

20.Consider the following statements regarding the Finance Commission of India:

The Article 380(1) of the Constitution lays down that the modalities for setting up of a Finance Commission to make recommendations on the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States during the award period.
The 15th Finance Commission made its recommendations for a six-year period from 2020-21 to 2025-26.

iii. Dr. Arvind Panagariya is the Chairman of the 16th Finance Commission.

The 16th Finance Commission shall make its report available by 31st March, 2025.
The 16th Finance Commission’s recommendations would cover the period of five years commencing 01 April 2026.

Which of the above statements is/are correct:
A) i, ii and iii only
B) i, iv and v only
C) ii, iii and iv only
D) i, iii and v only
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) i and ii only
B) i, iv and v only
C) i, iii and iv only
D) ii, iii and v only

Consider the following statements regarding Per Drop More Crop (PDMC) Scheme:
The PDMC Scheme focuses on enhancing water use efficiency at the farm level through Micro Irrigation.
It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
It is implemented under Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana.
Financial Assistance @ 55% for Small & Marginal farmers and 45% for other farmers is provided by the government for the installation of Micro Irrigation under the Scheme.

How many of the above statement/s is/are correct?
A) Only one statement
B) Only two statements
C) Only three statements
D) All the four statements

Consider the following statements regarding National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT) and Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS):
In National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT), the transaction happens in batches and hence it is slow.
In Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS), transactions happen in real time and hence it is fast.
There is no minimum limit in RTGS.
There is a Rs 2 Lakh minimum limit for NEFT.

How many of the above Statement/s is/are correct?
A) Only one statement
B) Only two statements
C) Only three statements
D) All the four statements

Consider the following statements regarding eligibility criteria for Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-U) 2.0 Scheme:
i. Low Income Group (LIG) households are families with an annual income up to Rs. 3 lakh.
ii. Economically Weaker Section (EWS) households are families with an annual income from Rs. 3 lakh up to Rs. 6 lakh.
iii. Middle Income Group (MIG) households are families with an annual income from Rs. 6 lakh up to Rs. 12 lakh.

The Incorrect statement/s is/are:
A) i only
B) ii and iii
C) iii only
D) i, ii and iii

Consider the following states:
i. West Bengal
ii. Andhra Pradesh
iii. Assam
iv. Bihar
v. Sikkim
vi. Arunachal Pradesh
vii. Odisha

Which of the above states are covered under the Government of India’s ‘Purvodaya plan’ announced in the Union Budget 2024?
A) i, iv, vi and vii
B) i, ii, iv and vii
C) iii, v and vi
D) i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi and vii

Consider the following statements regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC):
i. The RBI Governor has to vote both in the first instance and in case of a tie.
ii. The Monetary Policy Committee meets three times a year.

Choose the correct answer:
A) i only
B) ii only
C) Both i and ii
D) Neither i nor ii

“Quotas are the building blocks of the IMF’s financial and governance structure. An individual member country’s quota broadly reflects its relative position in the world economy.”

In the above context, which of the following parameters are used to calculate quota?
i. GDP of the country
ii. Degree of Openness
iii. Demographic dividend
iv. Economic variability
v. International Reserves
Choose the correct answer:
A) ii, iii and v
B) i, ii, iv and v only
C) i, iii and v only
D) i, ii, iii and v only

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Invasive species can outcompete native species.
Statement-II: Invasive species are always harmful to ecosystems.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
C) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
D) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Dendro Climatology” deals with:
A) Soil moisture data
B) Tree ring data
C) Ice core data
D) Paleo magnetism data
Arrange the following biodiversity conservation efforts in India in chronological order from earlier to later:
i. Project Hangul
ii. Project Elephant
iii. Project Snow Leopard
iv. Project Tiger

The correct answer/s is/are:
A) i, ii, iii, iv
B) i, iv, ii, iii
C) i, ii, iv, iii
D) iv, i, ii, iii

Match the following Acts with their year of enactment:

Act Year of Enactment

Wildlife Protection Act i.1974
Environment Protection Act ii.1986
Biological Diversity Act iii.2002
Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act iv.1972

Choose the correct answer:
A) 1-iv, 2-ii,, 3-iii, 4-i
B) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv
C) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii
D) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-i

Which of the following missions are covered under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC)?
i. National Solar Mission
ii. National Mission for a Green India
iii. National Green Hydrogen Mission
iv. National Mission on Sustainable Habitat
v. National Bio-Fuel Mission

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) i, ii and iv
B) i, iii and v
C) ii, iv and v
D) All the above

Which of the following are UNESCO’s natural world heritage sites in India?
i. Kaziranga National Park
ii. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary
iii. Rann of Kutch Wildlife Sanctuary
iv. Western Ghats

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) i, ii and iii
B) i, ii and iv
C) ii, iii and iv
D) All the above

Consider the following statements:
The extinction of a keystone species can lead to ecosystem collapse.
Climate change is solely a future concern and has no current effects.
Protected areas are essential for conserving biodiversity.
Ozone depletion directly contributes to global warming.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 2 only
C) 1, 2 and 4
D) 1 and 4 only

Consider the following statements:
Climate change is influenced by both natural and anthropogenic factors.
The Amazon rainforest is often referred to as the “lungs of the Earth”.
Current extinction rates are comparable to historical background rates.
Urbanization can negatively impact local biodiversity.

The correct statement(s) is/are:
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 2 and 4
C) 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 4

Consider the following statements:
Organisms that can tolerate and survive in a wide range of temperatures are called stenothermal.
Generally, humans are considered stenothermal.

The correct answer is:
A) Only Statement 1 is correct
B) Only Statement 2 is correct
C) Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct
D) Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is correct

Consider the following statements regarding eutrophication of lakes:
i. It is an anthropogenic process and does not occur naturally.
ii. Nitrate and phosphate are the main contaminants for eutrophication.

The correct answer is:
A) i only
B) ii only
C) Both i and ii
D) Neither i nor ii

Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Carbon dioxide, Methane and Nitrous oxide are considered greenhouse gases.
Reason (R): Greenhouse gases absorb short-wave radiation from the Sun and are transparent to long-wave radiation from Earth.

Choose the correct answer:
A) A and R are both correct and R is the correct explanation of A
B) A and R are both correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
C) A is correct, but R is NOT correct
D) A is NOT correct, but R is correct

Consider the following statements regarding the productivity of an ecosystem:
i. Gross primary productivity is the rate of formation of organic matter by consumers.
ii. Net primary productivity is the variable biomass available for consumption to heterotrophs.

The correct answer is:
A) i only
B) ii only
C) Both i and ii
D) Neither i nor ii

Consider the following statements:
Buckyballs, also known as fullerenes, are fascinating carbon molecules that resemble soccer balls.
Fly ash from thermal power plants contains buckyballs.

Which one of the following is correct?
A) Both 1 and 2 are correct, and 2 explains 1
B) Both 1 and 2 are correct, but 2 does not explain 1
C) 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect
D) 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct

Which of the following are possible effects of solar storms on Earth?
i. Disruption of GPS navigation and satellite communications
ii. Destruction of power grids
iii. Tsunamis at equatorial regions
iv. Intense auroras all over the Earth

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) i and ii only
B) i and iii only
C) i, ii and iii only
D) i, ii and iv only

Consider the following features:
i. Blockchain integration
ii. Centralized platform
iii. User ownership and control
iv. Interoperability

Which of the above are characteristics of Web 3.0?
A) ii and iii only
B) i, ii and iii only
C) i, iii and iv only
D) ii, iii and iv only

“Urea Gold” is a mixture of:
A) Nitrogen and Gold
B) Phosphorous and Gold
C) Nitrogen and Sulphur
D) Potassium and Phosphorous
Identify the correct match:
Washing soda – Na₂CO₃
Baking soda – NaHCO₃
Gypsum – CaSO₄2H₂O
Plaster of Paris – CaSO₄½H₂O

How many matches are correct?
A) Only one match
B) Only two matches
C) Only three matches
D) All four matches

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding the Global Innovation Index 2024?
i. Switzerland maintained its position as the global leader in innovation.
ii. India ranked 39th in the Global Innovation Index 2024.
iii. India secured the top position among lower middle-income countries.
iv. Singapore moved up to second position, leading in several innovation indicators.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) i, ii and iii only
B) i, ii and iv only
C) i, iii and iv only
D) ii, iii and iv only

Consider the following statements regarding Sickle Cell Anaemia:
i. It is caused due to genetic mutation.
ii. It affects the shape of red blood cells and reduces their ability to carry oxygen.
iii. It can be treated by bone marrow or stem cell transplantation.
iv. Sickle Cell Disease causes the body to make normal haemoglobin.

The incorrect statement(s) is/are:
A) i only
B) iii only
C) ii and iii only
D) iv only

The Bletchley Declaration, 2023was signed by which of the following countries among others?
i. United Kingdom
ii. South Korea
iii. Russia
iv. China

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) i and ii only
B) i and iii only
C) i and iv only
D) All of these

As per the Jammu and Kashmir Budget 2024-25, around how many Megawatt (MW) rooftop solar power plants are planned to be installed on government buildings by the Science and Technology Department?
A) 1 MW
B) 2 MW
C) 3 MW
D) 4 MW
Which of the following infections does NOTspread through direct contact or close proximity with an infected person?
A) Monkeypox (Mpox)
B) SARS-CoV-2 infection
C) Influenza virus infection
D) Chikungunya
Nobel Prize for Physics 2024 was awarded for the development of:
A) Nuclear fusion reaction
B) Quantum generator
C) Blockchain
D) Foundational work in Machine Learning using Artificial Neural Networks
Which of the following materials is widely used to make quantum dots for biological applications?
A) Silicon
B) Cadmium Selenide
C) Gallium Arsenide
D) Germanium
Match the following countries based on their ranks as per the medal tally in the Paris Olympics, 2024:

Countries	Rank
1. Australia	i. Rank one
2. China	ii. Rank two
3. Japan	iii. Rank three
4. France	iv. Rank four
	v. Rank five

Choose the correct answer:
A) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-v
B) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-v
C) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv
D) 1-iii 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii

Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The BRICS Summit in 2024 was hosted by Russia.
Reason (R): The motto of the BRICS Summit 2024 was “Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security”.

Choose the correct answer:
A) A is true but R is false
B) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
C) A is false but R is true
D) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

Arrange the General Elections in the following Asian countries in 2024 in correct chronological order:
i. Indonesia
ii. India
iii. Pakistan
iv. Kuwait
v. Jordan

Choose the correct order:
A) iv, iii, i, v, ii
B) i, iv, iii, v, ii
C) iii, i, iv, ii, v
D) ii, iv, v, i, iii

Arrange the following international events held in 2024 in the correct chronological order:
i. World Biodiversity Summit (Cali)
ii. World Climate Summit (New York)
iii. World Climate Summit (Baku)
iv. World Biodiversity Summit (New York)
v. Climate Investment Summit (London)

Choose the correct order:
A) iv, iii, i, v, ii
B) i, iv, iii, v, ii
C) v, ii, iv, i, iii
D) ii, iv, v, i, iii

Which of the following statements about the Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Civil Aviationare correct?
i. The first Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference was held in Beijing in 2018.
ii. The second Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference was held in New Delhi in 2024.
iii. The second conference was co-hosted by the International Civil Aviation Organization and India’s Ministry of Civil Aviation.
iv. The third Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference will be held in Ankara in 2030.

Choose the correct answer:
A) i and ii only
B) i, ii and iii only
C) i, ii, iii and iv
D) i and iv only

The Cancer Moonshot Initiative, recently in news, was launched by which of the following countries?
A) China, United Kingdom, Canada, and France
B) USA, United Kingdom, Indonesia, and Malaysia
C) India, Russia, France, and Japan
D) USA, Australia, India, and Japan
The Indian Institute of Technology Delhi (IIT Delhi) recently opened its overseas campus at:
A) Muscat
B) Abu Dhabi
C) Dubai
D) Sharjah
Which of the following statements about the Development of Semiconductors and Display Manufacturing Ecosystem in Indiaare correct?
i. Three semiconductor units will be established under this programme.
ii. All the three units will be located in Assam.
iii. These units will generate direct employment for one lakh people.
iv. Two units will be established in Gujarat and one unit in Assam.

Choose the correct answer:
A) i and ii only
B) i, ii and iii only
C) i, ii, iii and iv
D) i and iv only

Match the following books and authors shortlisted for the Booker Prize 2024:

Books	Authors
1. Held	i. Charlotte Wood
2. Creation Lake	ii. Rachel Kushner
3. Orbital	iii. Samantha Harvey
4. James	iv. Anne Michaels
	v. Percival Everest

Choose the correct answer:
A) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-v
B) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-v
C) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv
D) 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii

Match the following GI-tagged handloom products with their respective States/UTs:

GI Handloom Product	State/UT
1. Tangaliya Shawl	i. Nagaland
2. Chakheshang Shawl	ii. Gujarat
3. Habaspuri Saree & Products	iii. Odisha
4. Kani Shawl	iv. Jammu & Kashmir

Choose the correct answer:
A) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-i
B) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv
C) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv
D) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii

Which of the following statements about the movie “Santosh”are correct?
i. The movie was premiered at the 77th Cannes Film Festival 2024.
ii. It is Britain’s Oscar entry in the International Feature category.
iii. It is India’s Oscar entry in the International Feature category.
iv. It is directed by Indian director Sandhya Suri.

Choose the correct answer:
A) i and ii only
B) i, ii and iii only
C) i, ii, iii and iv
D) i and iv only

Match the following editions of India-Kazakhstan Joint Military Exercise (KAZIND) with their venues:

Exercise	Venue
i.KAZIND-2024	Auli
ii.KAZIND-2023	Otar
iii.KAZIND-2022	Aisha Bibi
iv.KAZIND-2021	Umroi

How many pairs given above are correct?
A) Only one pair
B) Only two pairs
C) Only three pairs
D) All four pairs

Which of the following are goals of Jammu and Kashmir Tourism Policy (2020)?
i. To become the most preferred all-season tourist destination by 2025.
ii. To promote all kinds of tourism across J&K.
iii. To promote city-wise events with predefined calendar at national/international level.
iv. To generate employment of approx. 75,000 people per year.

Choose the correct answer:
A) i and ii only
B) i, ii and iii only
C) i, ii, iii and iv
D) i and iv only

Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The Jammu & Kashmir Assembly Elections 2024 were the third such elections in the last decade.
Reason (R): The J&K Assembly Elections 2024 were the first elections since 1947 with reserved seats for SCs and STs.

Choose the correct answer:
A) A is true but R is false
B) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
C) A is false but R is true
D) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

In which year does ISRO plan to launch the first base module of the Bharatiya Antariksh Station?
A) 2032
B) 2030
C) 2029
D) 2028
Brihatkathamanjariwas written by:
A) Gunadhya
B) Harisena
C) Lal Ded
D) Kshemendra
Which of the following is/are true about Ganas or Sanghas?
i. Most ganas were located near Himalayan foothills.
ii. They retained vestiges of tribal organization.
iii. Power was vested in the hands of aristocracy.
iv. The ganas were associated with Vaishyas.

Choose the correct answer:
A) Only i is correct
B) Only i & ii are correct
C) Only i, ii & iii are correct
D) Only i, ii & iv are correct

Arrange the following in chronological order (earlier to later):
i. Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW)
ii. Ochre Coloured Pottery (OCP)
iii. Painted Grey Ware (PGW)
iv. Black and Red Ware (BRW)

Choose the correct answer:
A) iii, ii, iv, i
B) iv, iii, ii, i
C) ii, iv, iii, i
D) ii, iii, iv, i

Which of the following statements regarding the Indus Valley Civilization (IVC) are correct?
i. Scribes were involved in the seal-making process.
ii. The Great Bath of Mohenjo-Daro featured brick walls and a waterproof layer of natural tar.
iii. People of the IVC used iron ploughs.

Select the correct answer:
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i only
D) i, ii and iii

Consider the following statements regarding the Rock Edicts of Ashoka:
i. References to many kinds of Mahamattas.
ii. Pradesikas, Rajukas and Yukatas were important officials at district level.
iii. Reference to city administration run by six committees of five members each.
iv. References to Pativedakas and Pulisani.

Which of the above is/are correct?
A) i & ii only
B) i & iii only
C) i, ii & iii only
D) i, ii & iv only

Consider the following with reference to the Iqta System:
i. Iqta was a territorial assignment given to officers/nobles in lieu of service.
ii. The holder of Iqta was called Muqti.
iii. Originally, Iqta was hereditary and the Muqti was entitled to ownership rights.

Which is/are correct?
A) Only i
B) i and ii only
C) i and iii only
D) i, ii and iii

Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Atharva Veda, Mahabharata, Ramayana and Gita were translated into Persian during Akbar’s reign.
Reason (R): Jahangir set up a translation bureau for Sanskrit, Arabic and Greek works.

Choose the correct answer:
A) Both A & R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A & R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true but R is false
D) A is false but R is true

“The princes of the Bahmani maintained their superiority by valour only; for in power, wealth and extent of the country, the Rayas of Bijarnagar (Vijayanagar) greatly exceeded them”.
Who among the following made this statement?
A) Nicolo Conti
B) Ferishta
C) Abdur Razzaq
D) Nuniz
Match the following positions with their responsibilities in Maratha administration under Shivaji:

Position	Responsibility
1. Peshwa	i. Finance and General Administration
2. Sar-i-naubat	ii. Master of ceremonies
3. Surnavis	iii. Commander-in-Chief
4. Dabir	iv. Royal correspondence

Choose the correct answer:
1 2 3 4

A) i iii iv ii
B) i ii iv iii
C) iii ii i iv
D) i ii iii iv
Match the following battles with the year they were fought:

Battles	Year
1. First Battle of Panipat	i. 1526
2. Battle of Chausa	ii. 1527
3. Battle of Khanwa	iii. 1540
4. Battle of Kannauj	iv. 1539

Choose the correct answer:
1 2 3 4

A) i iv ii iii
B) i iv iii ii
C) i ii iii iv
D) i iii iv ii

Match the Indian musicians of the early twentieth century with their field of expertise:

Musician	Field of expertise
1. Narayana Dasu	i. Violin
2. Dhanammal	ii. Harikatha
3. Allauddin Khan	iii. Veena
4. Chowdiah	iv. Sarod
	v. Hindustani vocal

Choose the correct answer:

A) 1- i 2- ii 3-v 4- iv
B) 1-ii 2- i 3- iii 4-v
C) 1- iii 2- i 3-iv 4- ii
D) 1- ii 2- iii 3- iv 4- i

Which of the following is/are correct regarding the Charter Act of 1853?
i. The Act provided that the salaries of the members of the Board of Control, its Secretary and other officials would be fixed by the East India Company and paid by the British government.
ii. The number of members of the Court of Directors reduced from 24 to 18.
iii. 6 of the Court of Directors were to be nominated by the Crown.

Select the correct answer:
A) i & ii only
B) i & iii only
C) ii & iii only
D) i, ii & iii only

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding the Non-Cooperation Movement?
The Congress in its annual session held in December 1920 at Allahabad adopted Gandhiji’s plan for non-cooperation movement against the government.
The Congress gave the call for surrender of titles and honours.
An appeal was also made to use swadeshi cloth.

Choose the correct answer:
A) Only 1 is correct
B) Only 1 and 2 are correct
C) Only 2 & 3 are correct
D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Consider the following statements with reference to The Lucknow Pact:
It offered a joint League-Congress scheme for constitutional reforms.
It demanded representative Government and dominion status for India.
However, it didn’t accept the principle of separate electorate and proportional representation in both imperial and provincial legislatures.
The Lucknow Pact was seen as a beacon of hope to Hindu-Muslim unity.

How many of the above statement/s is/are correct?
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) Only three
D) All the four

Arrange the following events during the freedom struggle chronologically from earlier to later:
i. The Wavell Plan
ii. The Rajagopalachari Formula
iii. The August Offer
iv. The Cabinet Mission

Choose the correct answer:
A) iii, iv, ii, i
B) iii, i, ii, iv
C) iii, ii, iv, i
D) iii, ii, i, iv

Consider the following pairs:

Ramsar Wetland	State
i. Bhoj Wetland	1. Gujarat
ii. Nalsarovar	2. Uttar Pradesh
iii. Kanjali	3. Madhya Pradesh
iv. Sandi Bird Sanctuary	4. Punjab

Which of the following is correctly matched?
A) i-1, ii-3, iii-2, iv-4
B) i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2
C) i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4
D) i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1

Consider the following Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs):
i. Jarawa
ii. Sentinelese
iii. Onge
iv. Shompens
v. Chenchu
vi. Great Andamanese

How many of the above mentioned PVTGs belong to Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
A) Only three
B) Only one
C) Only five
D) Only four

Consider the following pairs:

Cyclone	Affected country/region
1. Yagi	Indonesia
2. Beryl	Caribbean
3. Mal	Fiji
4. Kevin	USA

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 1 and 4 only
D) 2 and 3 only

Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reasons (R):
(A) Near the equator, the warm rising air that releases latent heat during the formation of cumulus towers is believed to provide the energy that drives the Hadley cells. As the flow aloft moves poleward, the air begins to subside in a zone between 20° and 35° latitude.

(R)(1) As upper-level flow moves away from the stormy equatorial region, radiation cooling becomes the dominant process. As a result, the air cools, becomes denser, and sinks.
(R)(2) The Coriolis force becomes stronger with increasing distance from the equator, causing the poleward-moving upper air to be deflected into a nearly west-to-east flow by the time it reaches 30° latitude. This restricts the poleward flow of air. As a result, general subsidence occurs in the zones between 20° and 35° latitude.
Choose the correct option:
A) Assertion (A) is incorrect and Reason (R)(1) and (R)(2) are correct
B) Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R)(2) is incorrect explanation of (A)
C) Assertion (A) is correct and Reasons (R)(1) and (R)(2) are correct explanations of (A)
D) Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R)(1) is incorrect explanation of (A)

Consider the following distribution of the climate diagram and identify the correct match:

A) Tropical savannah
B) Mediterranean climate
C) Cold desert
D) Hot desert climate

How many of the climates given above are correctly matched?
A) Only one climate
B) Only two climates
C) Only three climates
D) All four climates

Consider the following statements regarding silk production in India:
A) Almost all popular commercial varieties of silk are produced in India.
B) Karnataka is the leading silk-producing state of India.
C) Tamil Nadu is the leading silk-producing state of India.
D) The Indian silk industry faces tough competition from Italy and Japan.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
A) i and ii
B) ii and iii
C) ii, iii and iv
D) i, ii and iv

Arrange the following states in descending order of literacy rate as per Census 2011:
i. Maharashtra
ii. Tamil Nadu
iii. Mizoram
iv. Sikkim
v. Tripura

The correct sequence is:
A) i, ii, iii, iv, v
B) iii, v, i, iv, ii
C) ii, iv, iii, i, v
D) ii, iv, i, iii, v

Which of the following states of India share an international border with Myanmar?
i. Tripura
ii. Mizoram
iii. Manipur
iv. Nagaland

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) i, ii and iii only
B) ii, iii and iv only
C) iii and iv only
D) All the states

Consider the following pairs:
Deception Island – Australia
Kilauea Volcano – United States of America
Shiveluch Volcano – Norway
Ibu Volcano – Indonesia

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
A) Only 2 and 4
B) Only 1 and 3
C) Only 1 and 2
D) Only 3 and 4

Arrange the following countries in increasing order of rubber production:
A) Philippines
B) Indonesia
C) Vietnam
D) Cameroon

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) iv, i, iii, ii
B) i, ii, iii, iv
C) iii, i, iv, ii
D) ii, i, iv, iii

Consider the following pairs:

Theory	Proponent
1. Glacial Control Theory	i. Daly
2. Equilibrium Theory	ii. Murray
3. Subsidence Theory	iii. Newton
4. Standstill Theory	iv. Darwin

The correct match is:
A) i – iii – ii – iv
B) iii – ii – iv – i
C) ii – i – iii – iv
D) i – iii – iv – ii

Karewa formations are found in:
A) Tarai region
B) Ganga delta
C) Kashmir valley
D) Rann of Kutch
Consider the following statements regarding tectonic plates:
i. Tectonic plates include the crust and the uppermost mantle of the solid earth.
ii. Tectonic plates are rigid, solid layers about 100 km thick.
iii. Tectonic plates include the crust and the entire mantle.
iv. Tectonic plates are confined to continental land masses only.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) i and ii
B) ii only
C) iii and iv only
D) iv only

The easternmost longitude of India is:
A) 94°23′ E
B) 97°25′ E
C) 84°25′ E
D) 87°26′ E
What is the correct sequence of the words mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
A) Secular, Justice, Liberty, Unity and Integrity of Nation
B) Justice, Secular, Liberty, Unity and Integrity of Nation
C) Liberty, Justice, Secular, Unity and Integrity of Nation
D) Secular, Liberty, Justice, Unity and Integrity of Nation
Which of the following words are mentioned in Article 51-A (g)of the Indian Constitution?
i. Rivers
ii. Forests
iii. Animals
iv. Lakes

Select the correct answer:
A) i and ii only
B) i, ii, and iii only
C) i, ii, and iv only
D) i, iii, and iv only

Which of the following Fundamental Rights are also available to non-citizens?
i. Equality before law
ii. Freedom of expression
iii. Freedom to manage religious affairs
iv. Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases

Choose the correct answer:
A) i, ii, iii
B) ii, iii, iv
C) i, ii, iv
D) i, iii, iv

Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional Amendment:
i. A Constitutional amendment bill can be introduced in either house of Parliament.
ii. This power is considered Parliament’s Constituent Powerrather than its legislative power.
iii. Constitutional amendments are not subject to judicial review.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) i only
B) ii only
C) i and ii only
D) i, ii, and iii

Consider the following statements:
Article 329 pertains to restrictions on court intervention in electoral matters.
Article 329A was removed by the 44th Constitutional Amendment.

Choose the correct answer:
A) Only statement 1 is correct
B) Only statement 2 is correct
C) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
D) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

Identify the correct group of states having a bicameral legislature:
A) Bihar, Maharashtra, Telangana, West Bengal
B) Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh
C) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh
D) Karnataka, Telangana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh

2023

With reference to agricultural technologies in the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements:
1. Terracotta models of the plough have been discovered at Banawali.
2. Evidence of ploughed fields has been found at Kalibangan.
3. Traces of irrigation canals have been discovered at Shortughai (Afghanistan).
  Which of the above statements are correct?
  A) 2 and 3 only
  B) 2 only
  C) 1 and 3 only
  D) 1, 2 and 3
4. Match the following Mahajanapadaswith their respective capitals:
5. Avanti – Ujjain
6. Kosala – Kaushambi
7. Magadha – Vaishali
8. Gandhara – Poonch
  How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  A) One pair only
  B) Two pairs only
  C) Three pairs only
  D) All four pairs
9. The term “Votive inscriptions”refers to:
  A) Records of miseries of women such as sati
  B) Gifts made to religious institutions
  C) Records of conquests by kings
  D) Accounts of sacrifices performed during coronation ceremonies
10. With reference to the administration of Harsha’s empire, consider the following statements:
11. The administrative system became more feudal and decentralized compared to the Gupta period.
12. Harsha is credited with paying his officers in cash, unlike many of his predecessors.
  Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  A) 1 only
  B) 2 only
  C) Both 1 and 2
  D) Neither 1 nor 2
13. With reference to the social order during the Satavahana period, consider the following statements:
14. The Satavahanas show traces of a matrilineal social structure, indicating that mothers enjoyed much importance in society, unlike the North Indian kingdoms.
15. They were the first rulers to make land grants (tax-free lands) to the Brahmanas.
  Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  A) 1 only
  B) 2 only
  C) Both 1 and 2
  D) Neither 1 nor 2
16. Santarakshita and Dipankara, in Medieval India, were related to:
  A) Sects of Mahayana Buddhism
  B) Sects of Digambara Jainism
  C) Sects of Lingayats
  D) Scholars of Buddhism
17. Match the following travelers in Medieval India with their respective dynasties:
18. Al-Masudi – Paramaras
19. Sulaiman – Rashtrakutas
20. Marco Polo – Palas
21. Amir Khusrau – Ghaznavids
  How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
  A) Only one pair
  B) Only two pairs
  C) Only three pairs
  D) All four pairs
22. Match the following Rajput States with their capitals during Medieval India:
23. Gahadavalas – Kannauj
24. Tomars – Delhi
25. Chauhans – Jaipur
26. Chandellas – Ujjain
  How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
  A) Only one pair
  B) Only two pairs
  C) Only three pairs
  D) All four pairs
27. He dominated and extended the Bahmani kingdom further south. He was granted the title ‘Chief of the Merchants’ (Malik-ul-Tujar).He divided the kingdom into eight provinces or tarafs. He was also a great patron of arts and built a magnificent madrassa in the capital, Bidar. Who was the person referred to above?
28. A) Ahmad Shah
  B) Feroz Shah Bahmani
  C) Mahmud Gawan
  D) Mahmud Shah III
29. One of the largest and most spectacular rock shelters is located in the Vindhya hills,full of Paleolithic and Mesolithic remains. It consists of the richest paintings of daily life events from hunting, dancing, and music to animal fighting, honey collection etc. Which of the following site is referred to above?
30. A) Lakhudiyar caves
  B) Pachmarhi caves
  C) Bhimbetka caves
  D) Raigarh caves
31. With reference to Amir Khusrau, the famous Persian writer of Medieval India, consider the following statements.
32. He was a contemporary of Mughal emperors Humayun and Akbar.
33. He blended the Hindu and Iranian systems by introducing new light music styles known as qawalis.
34. He created a new style of Persian poetry called Sabaq-i-Hind.

Choose the correct answer:
A) 1 and 3
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 2
D) 1, 2 and 3

With reference to judicial organization and the right power structure during Warren Hastings’ period, consider the following courts:
Diwani Adalat
Sadar Diwani Adalat
Provincial Courts of Civil Appeal
Registrar Courts

Choose the correct sequence:
A) 1-4-3-2
B) 4-1-3-2
C) 1-2-3-4
D) 1-3-4-2
14.Match the following educational institutions with their founders:

Educational Institution	Founder
1. Calcutta Madrasah	Lord Wellesley
2. Sanskrit College	Raja Ram Mohan Roy
3. Vedanta College	Jonathan Duncan
4. Hindu College	David Hare

Choose the correct answer:
A) Only one pair matched
B) Only two pairs matched
C) Only three pairs matched
D) All four pairs matched

With reference to the East India Company, consider the statements regarding the Company Act of 1784:
The Act gives the British Government supreme control over the Company’s affairs and administration in India.
The Act provides special powers to the Presidencies of Bombay and Madras, giving them more authority in revenue matters.
It established the Board of Control with six commissioners to oversee the commercial functions of the Company.

Choose the correct answer:
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 1 only
D) 2 and 3 only

Consider the following statements regards the ‘Cabinet mission plan’ and ‘Interim government.’
Cabinet mission plan implicitly accepted the ‘Pakistan’ demand of the Muslim league.
Muslim League initially accepted the Cabinet mission plan and later withdrew its acceptance of the mission plan.
The interim government was formed, under a cabinet mission plan, by Congress members alone with Nehru as de facto head.

Choose the incorrect answer:
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 2 and 3

Consider the following statements regards ‘Dharasana salt satyagraha?’
Mahatma Gandhi, Imam Saheb and Manilal led this satyagraha
It’s one of the important non-violent satyagraha in Indian history
It was held after Mahatma Gandhi broke the salt law in Dandi March.

Choose the correct answer:
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1,2 and 3

Consider the following statements regards Vijayanagara and Bahmani kingdoms,
The rulers of the Vijayanagara kingdom and Bahmani sultans had a matrimonial alliance.
Vijayanagara rulers inducted Muslims into their armies.

Choose the correct answer:
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements regarding important Bhakti saints Sankara from Kerala and Ramanuja from Tamilnadu.
Both Sankara and Ramanuja are contemporaries and they believed in Non-Dualism, that is, the God and created world is one.
Sankara argued that the way forward to salvation was strengthened by knowledge
Ramanuja argued that the grace of God is more important than the knowledge about him in order to attain salvation.
Sankara upheld the Vedas as the fountain-head of true knowledge and Ramanuja believed the path of Bhakti was open to all, irrespective of caste.

Choose the correct answer:
A) 1,2 and 3 only
B) 2,3 and 4 only
C) 1,3 and 4 only
D) 1 and 2 only

The Imperial Cholas are pioneers in local self-government. In this context, consider the following statements.
Uttiramerur inscriptions provide details of the formation and functions of village councils.
Both qualifications and disqualifications were mentioned for members of various committees
The members of the committee were called variyapperumakkal.

Choose the correct answer:
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 only
D) 1,2 and 3 only

With respect to Mughal paintings, consider the following statements.
Daswant and Basawan were two famous painters of Jahangir’s court.
Mughal paintings reached a climax under Jahangir
Aurangzeb’s lack of interest in paintings led to a dispersal of artists to different places.

Choose the correct answer:
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1,2 and 3 only

Consider the following statements regarding “Tughlaq architecture.”
The striking feature of the Tughlaq architecture was the sloping walls, called ‘batter’.
The “batter” is extensively used by Firuz Tughlaq in his buildings.
Tughlaq generally used costly red sandstone in their buildings

Choose the correct answer:
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 2 only
C) 1 only
D) 1,2 and 3

Consider the following statements regarding Article 31A:
It doesn’t immunise the state law from judicial review unless it has been reserved for the President’s consideration and has received his assent.
This article doesn’t provide the payment of compensation at market value when the state acquires the land held by a person for his personal cultivation.

The correct statement/s is/are:
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both
D) Neither 1 nor 2

Which of the following directive principles were added after the adoption of the Constitution?
To promote equal justice and provide free legal aid to the poor
To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries
To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife

The correct answer/s is/are:
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 2 only
D) 1,2 and 3

Consider the following sentences regarding the IX Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
The constitution assembly enacted Ninth Schedule in the original Constitution to ensure agrarian reform.
To reduce the discrimination and denial of equal protection of laws guaranteed to citizens under Article 14 of the Constitution.
After the landmark judgement of the Supreme Court in 2007, the now well-settled principle is that any law placed under Ninth Schedule is subject to Court scrutiny.

The correct answer/s is/are:
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 2 only
D) 1,2 and 3

Consider the following statements regarding Domicile.
The Domicile of a person means his permanent home and may include his birthplace.
Article 16(3) allows for making provisions in government appointments with respect to residence but not place of birth.
The Parliament can only prescribe residence within a state or union territory as a condition for certain employments or appointments in that state or union territory, local authority, or other authority within that state or union territory.

The correct answer/s is/are:
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 2 only
D) 1,2 and 3

Consider the following statements regarding Hindu Succession Act.
Hindu women’s right to be the coparcener (joint legal heir) and inherit ancestral property on terms equal to male heirs.
It applies to everyone who is not a Muslim, Christian, Parsi or Jew, Buddhist, Sikh and Jain by religion.
Kerala is the only state to have abolished the Hindu Joint Family System in 1975.

The correct answer/s is/are:
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1,2 and 3

Consider the following sentences regarding the President’s Pardoning Power in the USA.
All Presidents shall have the power to grant Reprieves and Pardons for offenses against the United States, except in cases of impeachment.
The power applies to both federal crimes and state crimes.
Those pardoned by the President cannot be tried under the laws of individual states.

The correct answer/s is/are:
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1,2 and 3

Consider the following statements regarding preventive detention law:
Preventive Detention involves the detainment (containment) of a person to keep him/her from committing future crimes and/or escaping future prosecution.
Article 22 (3)(b) of the Constitution allows for preventive Detention and restriction on personal liberty for state security and public order reasons.
Bengal Regulation III of 1818 and the Rowlatt Act of 1919 were enacted to empower the government to arrest anyone for preventive Detention.

The correct answer/s is/are:
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements regarding Article 371-A:
It says that in some matters, the Acts of Parliament relating to the matters would not apply to the state unless the State Legislative Assembly decides to include laws that may interfere with customs, social practices etc. and the ownership of their land. It entrusts the Governor of the state with special responsibility for law and order in the state.

The state mentioned in the above statements is:
A) Nagaland
B) Manipur
C) Mizoram
D) Meghalaya

Consider the following regarding Legislative Council.
Its establishment is defined in Article 169 of the Constitution of India.
The strength of the Legislative Council should not exceed 1/3rd of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly, but it should not be less than 40.
1/6th of members are nominated by the Governor based on their special knowledge.
Legislative councils are subject to dissolution; one-third of their members retire every second year.

How many statements given above are correct?
A) Only one statement
B) Only two statements
C) Only three statements
D) All the statements

Which of the following is considered as Tender Vote?
A) This refers to a vote cast by another person on behalf of a visually challenged person.
B) This refers to a vote cast by a person even after another person has already voted.
C) This refers to a vote cast by another person on behalf of Army personnel.
D) This refers to a vote cast by a person whose name is not on the electoral roll.
The disqualification on the ground of defection does not apply to which of the following reason/s?
If a member goes out of his party due to the merger of the party with another party.
If a member, after being elected as the presiding officer of the House, voluntarily gives up the membership of his party or re-joins it after he ceases to hold that office.

The correct statement/s is/are:
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both
D) Neither 1 nor 2

Which of the following has the oldest Act of Freedom of the Press?
A) Norway
B) United Kingdom
C) Sweden
D) Germany
Consider the following statements regarding Real Estate Appellate Tribunal (REAT)
The Chairperson is or has been a Judge of a High Court.
Chairperson and members are eligible for reappointment.
The tribunal is bound by rules and procedures of the civil procedure code (CPC) and Indian Evidence Act.

The correct answer/s is/are:
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1,2 and 3

Consider the following statements regarding GST Council:
A simple majority of the members present and voting shall take every decision of the Council.
The vote of the Central Government and state government shall weigh one-third of the total votes cast each.

The correct statement/s is/are:
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both
D) Neither 1 nor 2

Based on the Essential Commodities Act 1955, any action on imposing stock limit shall be based on price rise, and an order for regulating stock limit of any agricultural produce may be issued under this Act only if there is:
A hundred percent increase in the retail price of horticultural produce.
Fifty percent increase in the retail price of non-perishable agricultural foodstuffs.

The correct statement/s is/are:
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both
D) Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following regarding the “National eVidhan Application (NeVA)”;
It will help the members to carry out their duties in the House efficiently in a Paperless manner.
NeVA will completely eliminate the process of sending out a notice.
Mobile app of NeVA has made information on the conduct of business in Legislatures accessible anytime, anywhere to everyone.

How many statements given above are correct?
A) Only one statement correct
B) Only two statements are correct
C) All the statements are correct
D) All the statements are incorrect

Consider the following regarding the Flag Code of India, 2002 which was amended vide Order dated 30 December, 2021;
The Flag is displayed in the open or displayed on the House of a member of public, it may be flown day and night.
A member of a public, a private organization or an educational institution may hoist/display the National Flag on all days and occasions, ceremonial or otherwise.
No other flag or bunting should be placed higher than or even side by side with the National Flag.

How many statements given above are correct?
A) Only one statement correct
B) Only two statements are correct
C) All the statements are correct
D) All the statements are incorrect

Consider the following statements regarding minority status;
Minority status of religious and linguistic communities is “State-dependent”.
Religious or linguistic community which is a minority in a particular State can inherently claim protection and the right to administer and run its own educational institutions under Articles 29 and 30 of the Constitution.

The correct statement/s is/are:
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both
D) Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following Statements:
Statement I: Defamation is a reasonable restriction on the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1) (a)
Statement II: The right to reputation is the inherent right under Article 19.

Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
D) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Consider the following statements.
Statement I: The legislature of the State otherwise provides by law, the English language shall continue to be used for those official purposes within the state.
Statement II: The legislature of a state may by law adopt any one or more of the languages in the use of the state or Hindi as the language to be used for all or any of the official purposes of that state.

Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
D) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the Payment Infrastructure Development Fund(PIDF):
The Ministry of Finance set up a PIDF to encourage the adoption and deployment of Point-Of-Sale devices (POS).
The PIDF will be governed through an advisory council and managed and administered by the RBI.
The fund has been created to encourage the adoption of POS machines by businesses in all states including North-eastern states.

The correct answer/s is/are:
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 2 only
D) 1,2 and 3

Consider the following statements regarding Unified Payments Interface (UPI)
The UPI is a real-time payment system with a transfer limit of 1 lakh per transaction.
In addition to current and savings accounts, customers can link their overdraft account to UPI 2.0
Customers can pre-authorise a transaction and pay at a later date in UPI 2.0.
According to NPCI, customers can check the invoice the merchant sent before making payment.

How many statements given above are correct?
A) Only one statement
B) Only two statements
C) Only three statements
D) All the statements

Consider the following statements regarding GIFT City:
GIFT City is India’s first International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) under Special Economic Zone Act, 2005.
This provides world-class financial services only to non-residents, to the extent permissible under the current regulations, in a currency other than the domestic currency of the location where the IFSC is located.
GIFT is planned as a greenfield business district, to be located between Gandhinagar and Ahmedabad, to cater to financial services and IT firms looking to set up India operations.

The correct answer/s is/are:
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1,2 and 3

Consider the following statements regarding the Inverted duty structure:
Inverted duty structure is where the import duty on finished goods is low compared to the import duty on raw materials used in producing such finished goods.
It encourages domestic manufacturing by making it more competitive against imported finished goods.

The correct statement/s is/are:
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both
D) Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements regarding the Generalized System of Preferences (GSP):
The only countries that grant GSP are USA, EU and Russia.
The objective of GSP was to give development support to poor countries by promoting exports from them into developed countries.
Most favoured Nation (MFN) status and GSP are similar in tariff structure whether it is a developed or developing country.

The correct answer/s is/are:
A) 2 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1,2 and 3

Which of the following biotic conservative region is NOT included in the Green-Ag project?
A) Similipal Landscape
B) Chambal Landscape
C) Corbett-Rajaji Landscape
D) Sundarbans Landscape
An Infrastructure Investment Trust (InvIT) is a collective investment scheme, similar to a mutual fund, which enables direct investment of money from individual and institutional investors in infrastructure projects to earn a small portion of the income as a return.

Which transport sector is planning to set up Infrastructure Investment Trust?
A) Railways
B) Roadways
C) Shipping
D) Airways

Consider the following statements regarding over-the-top (OTT) platforms:
The first dependent Indian OTT platform was BIGFlix, launched by Reliance Entertainment in 2008.
There is no regulatory mechanism by the government of India for such platforms but they function under the ambit of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
Each platform that has signed the self-regulation code created by the Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI) will also have to set up a consumer complaints department and/or an internal committee.

The correct answer/s is/are:
A) 2 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1,2 and 3

Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A):The axis of the Earth is inclined to the plane of the ecliptic at an angle of 66½°.
Reason (R):All the parts of the globe don’t have equal day and night throughout the year.
The correct answer is:
A) A and R both correct and R is correct explanation of A
B) A and R both correct and R is NOT correct explanation of A
C) A is correct, but R is NOT correct
D) A is NOT correct, but R is correct

Consider the following statements:
Every 15° of longitude is considered a one-time zone globally.
East-west stretch countries have more time zones than north-south ones.
The places in the west are advance in time than the places in the east.

The correct statement/s is/are:
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 only
D) 1,2 and 3

Consider the following pairs:

Mountains	Period of origin
1. Andes, South America	Tertiary
2. Great dividing range, Europe	Caledonian
3. Kjolen, Europe	Hercynian
4. Aravallis, Asia	Pre Cambrian

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
A) Only one pair
B) Only two pairs
C) Only three pairs
D) All four pairs

Consider the following drainage pattern diagram and identify the correct match:

Dendritic pattern
Radial pattern
Trellis pattern
Annular pattern

Correct match options:
A) 1 3 2 4
B) 1 3 4 2
C) 3 1 4 2
D) 3 1 2 4

Which of the following lake types is called a ‘dead lake’?
A) Tom lake
B) Paternoster lake
C) Kettle lake
D) Ox-bow lake
Consider the following statements about the Khumbu ice fall:
It is a famous track route to reach Mt. Everest.
The region is more pronounced by crevasses which make the region more hazard-prone.

The correct statement/s is/are:
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both
D) Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the ocean currents diagram and identify the correct match:
Kuroshio current
Oyashio current
Antilles current
Canary current

The correct match is
a b c d
A 4 3 2 1
B 4 3 1 2
C 3 4 1 2
D 3 4 2 1

Which of the following correctly explains ‘one-inch rainfall measured in a rain gauge’?
A) The amount of water that would cover the ground to a depth of one inch, other than evaporated, drained off or percolated away.
B) The amount of water covering the ground to a depth of one inch provided none evaporated, drained off or percolated away.
C) The amount of water that would cover the ground to a depth of one inch, including evaporated but except drained off or percolated away.
D) The amount of water that would cover the ground to a depth of one inch, including drained off or percolated away except evaporated.
Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A):The ground temperature of the forested region is lower than the open ground on the same latitude.
Reason (R):During the day, trees lose water by evapotranspiration, leading to cool air above the forest.
The correct answer is:
A) A and R both correct and R is correct explanation of A
B) A and R both correct and R is NOT correct explanation of A
C) A is correct, but R is NOT correct
D) A is NOT correct, but R is correct

Which of the following pressure belts of the globe are dynamically formed?
Equatorial low-pressure belt
Subtropical high-pressure belts
Subpolar low-pressure belts
Polar high-pressure belts

Correct answer/s:
A) 3 only
B) 1, 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2 and 4 only
D) 2 and 3 only

Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A):Many savannah areas have poor lateritic soils, incapable of supporting intense crops.
Reason (R):Torrential rain and dry seasons lead to soil leaching and soil moisture evaporation in the savannah region.
Correct answer:
A) A and R both correct and R is correct explanation of A
B) A and R both correct and R is NOT correct explanation of A
C) A is correct, but R is NOT correct
D) A is NOT correct, but R is correct

Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A):The annual temperature range of cold deserts is larger than hot deserts.
Reason (R):Continentality accounts for the extreme range of temperature.
Correct answer:
A) A and R both correct and R is correct explanation of A
B) A and R both correct and R is NOT correct explanation of A
C) A is correct, but R is NOT correct
D) A is NOT correct, but R is correct

Which of the following are artificial lakes in India?
Pushkar lake, Rajasthan
Himayat Sagar, Telangana
Khecheopalri lake, Sikkim
Sasthamkotta lake, Kerala

Correct answers:
A) 1, 2 and 3 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 1, 3 and 4 only
D) All the lakes

Identify the rivers:
The city marked as ‘X’ is Prayagraj.

Mahananda
Gomati
Punpun
Betwa

The correct match is :
a b c d
A 1 2 3 4
B 1 2 4 3
C 2 1 4 3
D 2 1 3 4

Which of the following rivers DOESN’T drain into the Atlantic Ocean?
A) R. Niger
B) R. Parana
C) R. St. Lawrence
D) R. Zambezi
Match List 1 with List 2 and choose the correct answer from the codes:

National Park	Location
a. Tadoba	Rajasthan
b. Sariska	Gujarat
c. Pansda	Maharashtra
d. Buxa	West Bengal

Among the following fungi, which caused the Irish Potato Famine?
A) Fusarium oxysporum
B) Sclerotinia sclerotium
C) Phytophthora infestans
D) Sclerotium rolfsii
Arrange the following International Environmental Initiatives in chronological order:
Brundtland report
Vienna Convention
Stockholm Conference
Rio Declaration

Correct order:
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 3, 2, 1, 4
C) 3, 4, 1, 2
D) 1, 4, 3, 2

Consider the following pairs:

Pollutant	Disaster/Effect
1. Mercury	Itai-Itai Disease
2. Cadmium	Pesticides
3. DDT	Minamata Tragedy
4. Arsenic	Fertilizers

How many pairs are correctly matched?
A) Only one pair
B) Only two pairs
C) Only three pairs
D) All four pairs

Consider the following statements:
Urban climatology refers to a specific branch of climatology concerned with interactions between urban areas and the atmosphere, their effects on one another, and the varying spatial and temporal scales at which these processes (and responses) occur.
Carbon dioxide, as a greenhouse gas, has been described as “the leading pollutant” and “the worst climate pollutant”. It is natural, essential for plants, and given off by human respiration.
Water footprint measures the amount of water used to produce goods and services. It can be measured for any process: growing crops, producing clothes, fuel use, or for a multinational company.
As per the 2017 Global Risks Report (WEF), regarding impact on humanity, water crisis is ranked the 3rd most important global risk. India’s water footprint is 980 m³ per capita (~12% of world’s total).

Choose the correct answer:
A) None of the above statements are true
B) All the statements are true
C) Only statements 2, 3, and 4 are true
D) Only statements 1, 2, and 3 are true

Which of the following statements about the Paris Agreement is not true?
It aims to limit global temperature rise this century below 2°C above pre-industrial levels and pursue efforts to limit it to 1.5°C.
Countries are to prepare nationally determined contributions (NDCs).
It intends to fully replace the Nagoya Protocol by 2020.
The countries at COP24 released a set of implementing rules for the Paris Agreement, called the Katowice Rulebook.
Identify the incorrect statement(s) regarding tree species in various forests:
The Tundra and Taiga of northern Canada have fewer than 12 species of trees.
The temperate forests of the United States have about 35 species of trees.
The tropical forests of Panama have only 11 species of trees in a small area.

Select the correct answer using the code given

A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) None of the above
Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A):Habitat conditions are determined by latitude and altitude.
Reason (R):Organisms require different conditions for their growth and metabolism.

A) Both A and R are True and R is the correct explanation ofA.
B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C) A is True but R is False

. D) Both A and Rare False

Potassium chlorate decomposes in which temperature range?
A) 653–873 K
B) 589–825 K
C) 458–689 K
D) 673–878 K
Name the twin satellites orbiting Earth that track the movement of water around the planet:
A) INSAT
B) GRACE-FO
C) CALIPSO
D) NEEMO

Consider the statements regarding the thymus:

Statement I:The thymus is a lobed organ located near the heart and beneath the breastbone.
Statement II:The thymus provides microenvironments for the development and maturation of T-lymphocytes.
From the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below;

A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
C) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
Consider the following statements about colloids:

Statement I:Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols.
Statement II:Lyophilic colloids are extensively solvated.
From the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below;
A)Both Statement I and Statement II are true

B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
C) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

D)Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

Which bacteria is responsible for methane (biogas) production by methanogens in animals?
A) Paramoecium
B) Mycoplasma
C) Cyanobacteria
D) Archaebacteria
Presbyopia occurs due to:
A) Eyeball becoming too small
B) Elongation of the eyeball
C) Gradual weakening of the ciliary muscles
D) Excessive curvature of the eye lens
“Chemistry is the science of molecules and their transformations. It is the science not so much of the one hundred elements but of the infinite variety of molecules that may be built from them.”
This statement was given by:
A) Linus Carl Pauling
B) Marie Curie
C) Robert Bunsen
D) Roald Hoffmann
Consider the statements:

Statement I: The universal gravitational constant G is important because it determines the strength of one of the four forces in nature.
Statement II: By knowing G an accurate value for Earth’s mass could finally be obtained
From the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false C) Both Statement I and Statement II are false D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

Natality refers to:
A) To the number of births during a given period in the population that are added to the initial density.
B) To the number of deaths in the population during a given period.
C) To the number of individuals of the same species that have come into the habitat from elsewhere during the time period under consideration.
D) To the number of individuals of the population who left the habitat and went elsewhere during the time period under consideration

Litmus solution is a purple dye extracted from:
Hibiscus
Lichen
Lotus
Lily
Options:
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 and 4 only
D) 4 only
Consider the following pairs:
Planaria → Budding
Spirogyra → Fragmentation
Amoeba → Regeneration
Yeast → Fission
How many pairs are correctly matched?
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) Only three
D) All four
Match the following glands with their secretions:

List 1	List 2
1. Pituitary	i. Thyroxin
2. Pancreas	ii. Adrenalin
3. Thyroid	iii. Growth hormone
4. Adrenal	iv. Insulin

Choose the correct option
1 2 3 4

A) ii i iv iii
B) iii i ii iv
C) I ii iv iii
D) iii iv I ii
Arrange the following phases of mitosis in correct order:
Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase

Options:
A) 1,2,3,4
B) 3,2,1,4
C) 3,4,2
D) 1,4,3,2

Consider the following statements about light refraction:
When light passes from a rarer medium to a denser medium, it slows down and bends towards the normal.
When light passes from a denser medium to a rarer medium, it speeds up and bends away from the normal.

The correct statement/s is/are

A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both D) Neither 1 nor 2
When an object is kept at infinity, the nature of the image formed by a convex lens is:
Real
Inverted
Virtual
Upright

The correct answer/s is/are

A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 3 and 4 only D) AH the above
Consider the following disorders:
Haemophilia
Cystic fibrosis
Sickle-cell anaemia
Down’s Syndrome
How many of the above are Mendelian disorders?

How many of the above are Mendelian Disorders?

Only one 2. Only two 3. Only three 4. All
Consider the following about Himalayan and Chinese Red Panda:
Yarlung Zangpo River acts as a geographical barrier between their distributions.
The facial color of the Chinese Red Panda is redder than the Himalayan Red Panda.

The effective correct statement/s about the Himalayan and Chinese Red Panda is/are.

A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 1 and 2 only D) None of the above
Consider the statements about the Pitch Black naval exercise:

]. Pitch Black is a multilateral naval exercise between the Quad partner countries.
2.The exercise aims to hone operational skills and imbibe best practices and procedures, in the maritime domain through interaction between member countries.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both 1 and 2 D) Neither I nor 2
Which of the following can be identified by the Yarkovsky effect?
A) Asteroid mapping
B) Ocean floor mapping
C) Volcano interior mapping
D) Sun surface mapping
Arrange the following cities along the River Ganga from east to west:
A) Patna, Allahabad, Varanasi, Kanpur
B) Varanasi, Patna, Allahabad, Kanpur
C) Patna, Varanasi, Allahabad, Kanpur
D) Varanasi, Patna, Kanpur, Allahabad

Consider the statements regarding G20:
The European Union as a whole is a member of the G20.
The G20 Summit is formally known as the “Summit on Financial Markets and the World Economy.”
The first G20 meeting occurred right after the 2012 Eurozone financial crisis.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 1,2 B) 1,3 C) 2,3 D) 1,2,3
India is a member of which constituents of the World Bank Group?
Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA)
International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID)
International Development Association (IDA)
International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

Select the correct answer code:
A 1,2,3
B1,3,4
C.2,3,4
D.1,2,3,4

Consider the following statements about Sir Creek:
It is a 98-km uninhabited tidal estuary between the Rann of Kutch marshlands, opening into the Arabian Sea.
It divides the Kutch region of Gujarat and Sindh province of Pakistan.

Select the correct code

A) 1 only B) 2 only ，C) Both 1 and 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2
Arrange the following glaciers in decreasing order of their lengths:
A) Biafo > Hispar > Sonapani > Bara Shigri > Drang Drung
B) Hispar > Drang Drung > Biafo > Sonapani > Bara Shigri
C) Hispar > Biafo > Drang Drung > Sonapani > Bara Shigri
D) Biafo > Hispar > Bara Shigri > Sonapani > Drang Drung

The place known as the “Wagah of Gujarat,” where civilians can view the fenced international border with Pakistan, is:
A) Dwarka
B) Nadabet
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above

Consider the following:
Part of the Balipara-Charduar-Tawang road, a key strategic project near the Chinese border.
Located in West Kameng district, Arunachal Pradesh.

Executed by the Border Roads Organisation.
Which tunnel is referred to?
A) KIBITHOO Tunnel
B) SELA Tunnel
C) NECHIPHU Tunnel
D) NURANANG Tunnel

2022

The comic book ‘India’s Women Unsung Heroes’, released by the Ministry of Culture, depicted the stories of unsung women heroes.

Which of the following is/are NOT correctly matched?

Names	State
i) Rani Abbakka	Karnataka
ii) Matangiri Hazra	Gujarat
iii) Velu Nachiyar	Tamil Nadu

The answer is:
A) i and ii only
B) ii only
C) i and iii only
D) iii only

Consider the following statements regarding Domestic Systematically Important Insurers (D-SIIs) in India:
1. RBI nominates certain insurers as D-SIIs.
2. Currently LIC, GIC, New India Assurance Co. Ltd have been designated as D-SIIs in India.
3. D-SIIs are perceived as insurers that are ‘too big or too important to fail’ (TBTF).

The correct statement/s is/are:
A) 3 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1 and 2 only

Consider the following statements:
It is a large pale water bird declared Threatened species by IUCN.
They live in lowland fresh water, brackish and marine wetlands.
Nematode Infestation is one of the major threats to this species.

The above statements refer to:
A) Flamingo
B) Painted Stork
C) Spot-bellied Pelican
D) Asian Openbill

Consider the following statements:
Oil Shale refers to hydrocarbons that are trapped in formations of shale rock.
Shale Oil is a rock that contains a compound called Kerogen, which is used to make oil.
Tight Oil is also known as Shale Oil.

The correct statement/s is/are:
A) 1, 2 and 3
B) 2 only
C) 2 and 3
D) 3 only

Consider the following statements regarding ‘e-RUPI’:
e-RUPI is a voucher to facilitate cashless payment.
In some special circumstances, e-RUPI can be permitted for cash out or cash back on redemption.
The NPCI (National Payment Corporation of India) has boarded banks that will be the issuing authority for e-RUPI voucher.

Choose the correct statement/s:
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 2 only
D) 1 and 3 only

Consider the following features of the recently enacted Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021:
Enhancing the upper gestation limit from 20 to 24 weeks for special categories of women.
The upper gestation limit is not to apply in cases of substantial foetal abnormalities diagnosed by the Medical Board.
The ground of failure of contraceptives has been extended to women and their partner.

The correct statement/s is/are:
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Global Compact for Migration’ (GCM):
The Global Compact for Migration is the first-ever UN global agreement on a common approach to international migration in all its dimensions.
GCM is legally binding.
New York Declaration is associated with GCM.

The correct statement/s is/are:
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statement with regard to SemiCon India 2022 conference:
The theme of the Semicon India conference is ‘Catalyzing India’s Semiconductor Ecosystem’.
It was organized by India Semiconductor Mission.

The correct statement/s is/are:
A) 1 only
B) Neither 1 nor 2
C) 2 only
D) 1 and 2

Consider the following statement regarding RoDTEP Scheme:
RoDTEP is a WTO-compliant scheme, that replaced the Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (MEIS).
This scheme reimburses currently un-refunded Central, State, and Local taxes and duties.

The correct statement/s is/are:
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

Which one of the following is not one of the functions performed by the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In)?
A) Collection, analysis and dissemination of information on cyber incidents
B) Forecast and alerts of cyber security incidents
C) Coordinating with international private cyber agencies
D) Emergency measures for handling cyber security incidents

Consider the following statement regarding ‘Ways and Means Advances’ (WMA):
It is a facility for both the Centre and States to borrow from the RBI.
These borrowings are meant purely to help them to tide over long-term mismatches in cash flows of their receipts and expenditures.
The interest rate on WMA is the repo rate of the RBI.

The correct statement is/are:
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 3 and 1 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

According to the 105th constitutional amendment, consider the following statements:
This amendment seeks to restore the power of state government to identify and specify Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBC).
It allows states to maintain a separate ‘state list’ for SEBC reservation.

The correct statement/s is/are:
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

RUAV-200, a coaxial rotor helicopter drone, to be used as a Mule Drone for high altitude logistics operations by the Indian Army, is developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited, DRDO’s ADE and an Indian Institute of Technology.

Find the correct one below:
A) IIT Bombay
B) IIT Kanpur
C) IIT Delhi
D) IIT Guwahati

With reference to SVAMITVA Scheme, consider the following statements:
It is launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
It is a centrally sponsored scheme.
It aims to allow citizens to use their property as a financial asset for taking loans and other financial benefits.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 3 only

With reference to Open Network Digital Commerce (ONDC), consider the following statements:
It is an initiative of the Ministry of Science and Technology.
It is a globally first-of-its-kind initiative that aims to democratise Digital Commerce.
It is modelled around the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) project.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Shirur Mutt case judgement of 1954, which was recently in news, is related to:
A) The doctrine of colorable legislation
B) The doctrine of Basic Structure
C) The doctrine of separation of power
D) The doctrine of essential religious practices
Consider the following statements:
The Andaman and Nicobar Command (ANC) is the first and only tri-service theater command of the Indian Armed Forces, based at Port Blair in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
The CINCAN is a Three-star rank officer from the three Services in rotation who reports directly to the Chief of Defence Staff (India) (CDS) in New Delhi.

The correct statement/s is/are:
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

India’s first Geological Park approved by the Geological Survey of India is located at:
A) Lamheta, Madhya Pradesh
B) Latur, Maharashtra
C) Shillong, Meghalaya
D) Dehra Dun, Uttarakhand
Assertion (A):In Ashoka’s time, Bherighosa was replaced with Dhammaghosha.
Reason (R):After Ashoka acceded to the throne, Ashoka fought a major war called the Kalinga War.

Choose the correct one:
A) Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true but R is false
D) A is false but R is true

Match the following:

Code	Description
1.Vellanvagai	a. Land gifted to temples
2. Vellanvagai	b. Land gifts to non-brahmana peasants
3. Devadatta	c. Land gifted to Jaina institutions
4.Pallichchhandam	d. Land gifted to schools

Correct match is 1 2 3 4:
A) (b) (d) (a) (c)
B) (c) (a) (b) (d)
C) (c) (b) (d) (a)
D) (d) (a) (c) (b)

In the entire history of the Delhi Sultanate, there was only one Sultan who voluntarily abdicated his throne and moved to a small town away from Delhi.

Which one of the following personalities is related to this context?
A) Bahlul Lodi of the Lodi dynasty
B) Alam Shah of the Sayyid dynasty
C) Nasir-ud-din Muhammad Shah of the Tughlaq dynasty
D) Nasir al din Mahmud II of the Mamluk dynasty

Consider the following statements regarding Kushanas:
The founder of the Kushana dynasty was Kadphises I.
The Kushanas were a branch of the Yiuchi Tribe.
They issued gold coins with the title of “Lord of the whole world”.

The correct statement/s is/are:

Consider the following statements regarding judicial organisation in the time of the British:
Cornwallis established Courts of the Circuit which were formed to deal with civil cases only.
William Bentinck abolished the Circuit courts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

Which of the following events happened during the period of Lord Warren Hastings?
Treaty of Salbai
Eyre Coote defeated Haider Ali at Porto Novo
Treaty of Seringapatnam

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 3 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 2 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

The Sangam literature can be divided into two groups named Narrative and Didactic.

Consider the following statements:

The narrative texts are called Kilkanakku or Eighteen minor works.
The Didactic texts are called Melkannakku or Eighteen major works.

The correct statement/s is/are:
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

With reference to Gupta Land Administration, the terms “maru” and “pankila” denote:
A) Land classification
B) Land measurement units
C) Taxes imposed based on land types
D) Land tenure systems
Consider the following statements regarding Mughal period paintings:
Daswant and Baswan were two of the famous painters of Akbar’s court.
During Shah Jahan’s reign, Mughal paintings reached their zenith.

The correct statement/s is/are:
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

The early medieval Saint Basavanna belonged to:
A) Vaishnava Tradition
B) Saiva Tradition
C) Virasaiva Tradition
D) None of the above
The idea of Swadeshi and the boycott of foreign goods spread all over the country.

Consider the following statements:

The Indian National Congress took up the Swadeshi call in Banaras session which was presided by Surendranath Banerjee.
The movement was presided over in Bengal by Syed Haider Raza.

The correct statement/s is/are:
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

Which of the following statements is true with respect to Lex Loci Act, 1850?
A) It was to protect British Indigo planters
B) It was to protect the interest of British capitalists
C) Provided right to inherit properties to Hindu converts to Christianity
D) Imposed the condition on Indian soldiers to serve outside India
Match List – I and List – II and select the correct answer:

List I – (Ancient Sites)
a. Lothal
b. Kalibanga
c. Dholavira
d. Mohenjodaro
List II – (Archaeological Finding)

Ploughed Field
Dockyard
The Dancing Girl
An inscription comprising ten large sized signs of the Harappan script

Codes:
A) 2 1 4 3
B) 1 2 3 4
C) 4 3 2 1
D) 3 2 4 1

Consider the statements below:
Arthashastra by Kautilya is a major source for the study of Mauryan Age.
The information given in Indica by Megasthenes is supplemented with Arthashastra.
The Arthashastra does not contain any references to the Mauryas, their empire, Chandragupta, or Pataliputra.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) 1, 2 and 3
B) 1 and 2
C) 2 and 3
D) 2 only

What set of three texts did Shankaracharya call Prasthanatrayi?
A) Vedas, Upanishads and Bhagavadgita
B) Mahabharata, Brahmanas and Upanishads
C) Upanishads, Bhagavadgita and Brahmasutras
D) Vedas, Ramayana and Upanishads
Consider the following statements about the Charter Act of 1813:
It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.
Christian Missionaries were allowed to enter India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Match the following discontinuities with the section of the Earth:
a) Mohorovicic discontinuity
b) Repetti discontinuity
c) Lehmann discontinuity
d) Wiechert-Gutenberg discontinuity

The correct match is:
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 1 2 4 3
C) 2 1 4 3
D) 2 1 3 4

Identify the correct match:
a) Reverse fault
b) Normal fault
c) Strike-slip fault

A) 1 2 3
B) 1 3 2

C)2 1 3
D)2 3 1

Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): The period 1550 to 1800 has been called ‘the Little Ice Age’.
Reason (R): The glaciers of the mountains of Europe reached their most advanced positions since the beginning of the post-glacial epoch.
The correct answer is:
A) A and R are both correct and R is the correct explanation of A
B) A and R are both correct and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
C) A is correct, but R is NOT correct
D) A is NOT correct, but R is correct

Identify the following marginal seas marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4 on the given map:
a) Kara Sea
b) Barents Sea
c) Laptev Sea
d) Sea of Okhotsk

The correct match is:
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 1 3 2 1
C) 2 3 1 2
D) 3 4 2 1

Identify the location of climates marked on a hypothetical continent:
Savanna climate
Steppe climate
Mediterranean climate
British climate

The correct match is:
A) 1 3 4 2
B) 3 1 2 4
C) 1 3 2 4
D) 3 1 4 2

Identify the climatic regions of India given by Köppen:
Am
As
Aw
BSh

The correct match is:
A) 1 4 3 2
B) 4 1 3 2
C) 1 4 2 3
D) 4 1 2 3

Vertically arrange the photic layers of the ocean:
i. Epipelagic
ii. Mesopelagic
iii. Bathypelagic
iv. Hadopelagic
A) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
B) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
C) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Which of the following weather phenomenon/s has/have the calm low pressure at the centre and cylindrical cloud with heavy rain around it?
Hurricane
Typhoon
Cyclone
Anti-cyclone
A) 3 only
B) 1, 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2 and 4 only
D) 1 and 3 only
Consider the following statements:
The texture of soil refers to the sizes of the solid particles composing the soil.
Loam is a soil in which no one grade dominates.
The colour of the soil is determined with the aid of a Munsell colour chart.

The correct answer is:
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Assertion (A):Sea snot is a slimy layer of grey or green sludge that floats on the surface of seas, which can cause damage to the marine ecosystem.
Reason (R):The nutrient overload occurs when algae feast on warm weather caused by global warming.

Choose the correct one:
A) Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true but R is false
D) A is false but R is true

Which of the following statement is NOT correct as per IPCC latest report?
A) The rate of global GHG emissions growth has slowed in recent years, from 2.1% per year (2000–2009) to 1.3% per year (2010–2019).
B) Lockdown policies in response to COVID-19 led to an estimated global drop of 5.8% in CO₂emissions in 2020 relative to 2019.
C) There has been a significant global transition from coal and biomass use in buildings towards modern energy carriers and efficient conversion technologies.
D) Average annual growth in GHG emissions from energy supply increased from 2.3% (2000–2009) to 3.1% (2010–2019).
Match the following List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:

List I
a) Khunjerab
b) Lanak La
c) Lekhapani
d) Lipulekh
List II

Arunachal Pradesh with Myanmar
Ladakh with Lhasa
Uttarakhand with Tibet
Ladakh with Sinkiang

Codes: a b c d
A) 4 2 1 3
B) 2 4 3 1
C) 3 1 4 2
D) 1 3 2 4

Arrange the main peaks of Western Ghats in descending order of elevation:
i. Doddabetta
ii. Ooty
iii. Anamudi
iv. Pushpagiri
A) iii, ii, i, iv
B) iii, i, ii, iv
C) i, ii, iii, iv
D) i, iv, iii, ii
If the time at Greenwich Meridian is 12:00 AM (Midnight), what would be the time at 30°W meridian?
A) 8:30 PM
B) 10:00 PM
C) 10:30 PM
D) 2:00 AM
The correct sequence of the following seas from East to West is:
A) Caspian Sea – Aral Sea – Black Sea – Mediterranean Sea
B) Aral Sea – Caspian Sea – Black Sea – Mediterranean Sea
C) Black Sea – Mediterranean Sea – Aral Sea – Caspian Sea
D) Mediterranean Sea – Black Sea – Caspian Sea – Aral Sea
Arrange the following officials based on the Order of Precedence:
Chief Election Commissioner
Holders of Bharat Ratna decoration
Attorney General
Chief of Staff holding rank of General
A) 2 – 1 – 3 – 4
B) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
C) 1 – 2 – 4 – 3
D) 4 – 3 – 2 – 1
Identify the correct match of the Indian Parliamentary Closure Motions and their definitions:
Simple Closure – A member moves that the matter has been sufficiently discussed and be now put to vote.
Closure by Compartments – Only important clauses are taken up for debate and voting, intervening clauses are skipped over.
Kangaroo Closure – Clauses of a bill are grouped into parts before debate; debate covers the part as a whole and entire part is put to vote.
Guillotine Closure – Undiscussed clauses of a bill/resolution are also put to vote along with discussed ones due to want of time.

How many statements given above are correct?
A) Only one statement
B) Only two statements
C) Only three statements
D) All four statements

Consider the following statements regarding CJI appointment:
The Union Minister of Law, Justice and Company Affairs would, at the appropriate time, seek the recommendation of the outgoing Chief Justice of India for appointment of the next CJI.
Whenever there is any doubt about the fitness of the senior-most Judge to hold the office of CJI, consultation with other Judges as envisaged in Article 124(2) would be made.
After receipt of the recommendation of the CJI, the Union Minister will put up the recommendation to the President.

The correct statement/s is/are:
A) 1, 2 and 3
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 only
D) 1 and 2

The Incremental Model of Policy Making was propounded by:
A) James Anderson
B) Charles Lindblom
C) Robert Haveman
D) Etzioni
Consider the following statements:
Unlike the Rajya Sabha Chairman, the Speaker of Lok Sabha cannot suspend a member without adopting a motion for suspension.
While the Rajya Sabha Chairman is empowered to place a member under suspension, the authority for revocation of this order is not vested in him.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

What is not explicitly stated in the Constitution of India but followed as a convention?
A) The Finance Minister is to be a member of the Lower House
B) The Prime Minister has to resign if he loses the majority in the Lower House
C) All sections of India are to be represented in the Councils of Ministers
D) If both the President and the Vice President demit office simultaneously before the end of the tenure, Speaker of the Lower House of the Parliament will officiate as the President
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List I
a) Independence of Judiciary
b) Executive Legislation
c) Quasi-judicial function
d) Collective responsibility
List II

Administrative Adjudication
Parliamentary form of Government
Appointment and transfer of Judges
Ordinance

Codes:
A) (a)2 (b)1 (c)4 (d)3
B) (a)3 (b)4 (c)1 (d)2
C) (a)2 (b)4 (c)1 (d)3
D) (a)3 (b)1 (c)4 (d)2

Which of the following do NOT participate in the process of election of President of India?
Nominated members of both Houses of Parliament
Nominated members of Legislative Assemblies
Elected members of Legislative Councils
Elected members of UT Legislative Assemblies

How many statements given above is/are correct?
A) Only one statement
B) Only two statements
C) Only three statements
D) All the four statements

Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): Altruistic surrogacy involves no monetary compensation to the surrogate mother.
Reason (R): Only medical expenses and insurance coverage during the pregnancy are given.
Choose the correct option:
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true but R is false
D) A is false but R is true

Consider the following statements:
The Constitution of India does not declare the location of the seat of the Supreme Court.
The Chief Justice of India can appoint other places as the seat of the Supreme Court only after the approval of the President.
The President of India can order the Supreme Court to change its seat of location.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) 1, 2 and 3
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 only
D) 1 and 2

Identify the correct match:
Chief Justice of India
Judges of Supreme Court
Speaker of Lok Sabha
Attorney General

How many statements given above is/are correct?
A) Only one statement
B) Only two statements
C) Only three statements
D) All the four statements

Consider the following statements:
The word ‘Cabinet’ was not a part of the original Constitution; it was added in 1978 by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act.
‘Ministers’ refers to members of the Council of Ministers, but does not include Deputy Ministers.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

The theory of Separation of Powers was advocated by which of the following political and constitutional philosophers?
A) Hobbes
B) Montesquieu
C) Locke
D) Mussolini
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Sunset clause in legislation is one which provides that after a particular date it ceases to exist.
Reason (R): Sunset clause is a provision to avoid stagnation in the legislative process by removing unwanted laws of the time.

Choose the correct one:
A) Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true but R is false
D) A is false but R is true

Match the following Schedules and subjects they deal with:
Schedule 3 – Oath and affirmation
Schedule 4 – Seats allotted to Rajya Sabha
Schedule 5 – Division of Powers
Schedule 8 – Languages

How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
A) Only one pair
B) Only two pairs
C) Only three pairs
D) All the four pairs

Which among the following statement(s) is/are true with respect to the Indian economy?
Demonetisation is the act of stripping money of its legal tender status.
An increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio by the Reserve Bank of India increases the money multiplication in the market.
Haircut reflects the borrower’s perception of the risk of falls in the value of assets.

Select the correct option:
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1 only

Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Additional Tier-1 (AT1) bonds are used by banks to augment their core equity base and thus comply with Basel-III norms.
Reason (R): Additional Tier-1 bonds are long-term bonds.

Choose the correct one:
A) Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true but R is false
D) A is false but R is true

In India, the Broad Money (M3) measures money supply as the sum of:
A) Currency with the public + Demand Deposits with banks + Other Deposits with RBI
B) Currency with the public + Demand Deposits with banks + Other Deposits with RBI + Time Deposits with banks
C) Demand Deposits with banks + Other Deposits with RBI + Saving Deposits with post office + Currency with the public
D) Currency with the public + Demand Deposits with banks + Other Deposits with RBI + Total post office deposits
Which of the following could be said to have prevented ‘trickle-down effects’ in the Indian economy?
Increased dependence of agriculture on purchased input and privately managed irrigation.
More employment of labour by larger landholding farmers.
Lower participation of women in the agricultural workforce due to new technology.
The failure of the Green Revolution.

The answer is:
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3
D) 2 and 4

Which among the following statements are correct regarding share market operations?
Bear is a person who speculates share prices to fall in future and so sells his shares and earns a profit.
Bull is a person who speculates share prices to go up in future so either stops selling selected shares for a time period.
A Bull increases the number of shares in a stock market.
A Bear creates a scarcity of shares in the stock market.

The correct statements are:
A) 1 and 2
B) 1, 2 and 3
C) 1, 3 and 4
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Consider the following statements regarding Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) of Reserve Bank of India:
It aims to monitor the operation of weaker banks more closely to encourage them to conserve capital and avoid risks.
It imposes certain restrictions on dividend distribution and expansion of branches by banks that are financially weak.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements regarding Sovereign Bonds:
A sovereign bond is a specific debt instrument issued by the government in both foreign and domestic currency.
The yield of the sovereign bond is the interest rate that the government pays on issuing bonds.
The central banks also control the supply of money within the economy by the use of these bonds.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements about National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI):
It is a “Not for Profit” company under the provisions of Section 8 of Companies Act, 2013.
It is set up to provide infrastructure to the entire banking system in India for physical as well as electronic payment and settlement systems.
National Financial Switch (NFS) and Cheque Truncation System (CTS) are the flagship products of NPCI.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3
D) 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements:
If the fiscal deficit ratio is too high, it leads to higher rates of interest for the borrowings of private entrepreneurs and businesses.
The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003 suggests bringing the fiscal deficit down to about 3% plus or minus 2% of the GDP.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements:
GDP evaluated at current market price is not the right metric to compare the GDP figures of different countries.
Nominal GDP is calculated in a way such that the goods and services are evaluated at some constant set of prices.
If the Real GDP changes, we can be sure that it is the volume of production which is undergoing changes.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3
D) 1, 2 and 3

Which of the following bacterium is called the superbug that is used for oil degradation?
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Streptococcus pyrogenes
C) Pseudomonas putida
D) Bacillus subtilis
Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): Small animals have a larger surface area relative to their volume.
Reason (R): They lose body heat when it’s cold outside.
Choose the correct answer:
A) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is true but (R) is false
D) (A) is false but (R) is true

The equation dN/dt = rN describes pattern of population:
A) Exponential growth
B) Hyperbolic growth
C) Logistic growth
D) Rectangular growth
Which of the following statements is true?
A) Benthic refers to the floor of the sea and benthos refers to plants and animals that live there.
B) Benthos refers to the floor of the sea and benthic refers to plants and animals that live there.
C) Benthos refers to the flora of the sea and benthic refers to animals that live there.
D) Benthos and benthic both refer to animals that live there.
Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): The solar radiation from the sun is balanced by the thermal radiations reflecting from the earth. The incoming solar radiation from the sun is independent.
Reason (R): The outgoing thermal radiation depends on the earth’s surface temperature and the presence of greenhouse gases, which absorb some of the thermal radiation.
Choose the correct answer:
A) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is true but (R) is false
D) (A) is false but (R) is true

The processes of permafrost, glaciations, defrosting and de-glaciations are known as:
A) Ardent processes
B) Searing processes
C) Warming processes
D) Cryogenic processes
A coalition of more than 50 global companies formed to send a strong market signal for the commercialization of zero-carbon technologies is known as:
A) First Movers Coalition
B) Global Initiative of Companies for Zero Carbon
C) World Environmental Forum
D) Global Environmental Forum
Lichen represents an example of:
A) Mutualism
B) Commensalism
C) Amensalism
D) Parasitism
Pollination carried out by butterflies is termed as:
A) Ornithophily
B) Elelophily
C) Myrmecophily
D) Psychophily
Which among the following bacteria play a role in the process of denitrification?
A) Nitrosomonas
B) Nitrobacter
C) Pseudomonas
D) Rhizobium
Match the following diseases with their causal microbes:
Mucormycosis – Fungus
Tuberculosis – Bacteria
Monkeypox – DNA Virus
Malaria – RNA Virus
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
A) One pair only
B) Two pairs only
C) Three pairs only
D) All four pairs
Match the following vaccines with their types:
Zycov-D – DNA vaccine
Sputnik – Vector-based vaccine
Moderna – mRNA vaccine
Covaxin – Live attenuated vaccine
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
A) One pair only
B) Two pairs only
C) Three pairs only
D) All four pairs
With reference to Augmented Reality (AR) and Virtual Reality (VR), consider the following statements:
AR refers to a digitally simulated experience that can mimic or alter reality.
VR brings digital elements into the real world through glasses or other digital devices.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
Consider the following statements regarding purification of water:
Chlorine kills pathogenic bacteria but is ineffective against spores and hepatitis viruses.
Ozone removes all chlorine and inactivates viruses rapidly.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
Consider the following statements:
The ability of carbon atoms to bond with other carbon atoms is called Catenation.
Compounds having the same molecular formula but different structures exhibit Isomerism.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
Consider the following:
Assertion (A): Kharif crops are more susceptible to pest attacks compared to Rabi crops.
Reason (R): Humid and warm climate is more favorable to rapid crop growth than humid and cool climate.
Which of the following is correct?
A) Both A and R are correct, and R explains A.
B) Both A and R are correct, but R does not explain A.
C) A is correct, R is incorrect.
D) A is incorrect, R is correct.
Match the following space missions with their agencies:
Psyche – ESA
SLIM – NASA
JUICE – JAXA
Aditya L-1 – ISRO
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
A) One pair only
B) Two pairs only
C) Three pairs only
D) All four pairs
With reference to Artificial Intelligence, consider the following statements:
Machine learning uses layered neural networks loosely modeled on the human brain.
Deep learning enables computers to recognize patterns and make decisions from large datasets without specific programming.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
Regarding 5G technology, consider the following statements:
5G operates mainly in low, mid, and high-frequency bands.
Low band spectrum provides wide coverage and stable speeds but is limited to 100 Mbps.
Low band spectrum may also be used by industries for private captive networks.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3
Consider the following statements regarding Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs):
Digital assets like art, music, videos, tweets, and selfies can be tokenized as NFTs.
NFTs can be traded or exchanged using blockchain technology.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
Assertion (A): Raindrops usually hit the earth’s surface with constant velocity.
Reason (R): A falling body through a viscous medium attains constant terminal velocity.
Which of the following is correct?
A) A is false, R is true
B) A is true, R is false
C) Both A and R are true, and R explains A
D) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
Why does an apple change color when exposed to air?
Apples contain tannins acting as astringent agents.
Apples cannot contain tannins due to the presence of betacyanins.
Apples turn brown because of phenolic compounds.
Apples do not change color in air.
How many of the above statements are correct?
A) One statement only
B) Two statements only
C) Three statements only
D) All four statements
Assertion (A): GSAT-24 was launched aboard the French Ariane-5 rocket.
Reason (R): India currently lacks a launch vehicle capable of placing a 4-ton satellite in geostationary orbit.
Which of the following is correct?
A) Both A and R are true, and R explains A.
B) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.
C) A is true, R is false.
D) A is false, R is true.
When an artificial satellite revolves around the Earth in a circular orbit, which of the following quantities remains constant?
A) Linear velocity
B) Angular frequency
C) Angular momentum
D) Angular displacement
The device used by traffic police in breath tests for drunk driving works on the principle of:
A) Potassium dichromate with sulphuric acid
B) Turmeric on filter paper
C) Silica gel coated with silver nitrate
D) Potassium permanganate with sulphuric acid
The extraction of aluminum is carried out by which of the following processes?
A) Hall–Heroult process
B) Calcination
C) Leaching
D) Van-Arkel method

2021

When did the Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister approved the adoption of Jammu and Kashmir Panchayati Raj Act
A) 21 October, 2019 B) 21 August, 2020 C) 5 August, 2020 D) 21 October, 2020

2.According to the UNICEF First Child-focused Climate Risk Index- the Children’s Climate Risk Index (CCRI), which of the following countries is at the lowest rank in South Asia.

A) India B) Afghanistan C) Sri Lanka D) Pakistan

3.Under the bench of which of the following judges, the Supreme Court of India upheld Media’s freedom to report Court hearings in the case of Election Commission of India Vs MR Vijaya Bhaskar?

A) Justices D.Y Chandrachud, K.M. Joseph
B) Justices UU Lalit and Vineet Saran
C) Justices AM Khanwilkar, Indu Malhotra
D) Justices D.Y Chandrachud, M.R Shah’
How many Indian students will be sponsored each year under the Quad fellowship to pursue masters and doctoral degrees at leading STEM graduate universities in the United States?
A) 100 B) 200 C) 50 D) 25
What is the theme of World Brain Day 2021 ?
A) Stop Alzheimer’s B) Stop Parkinson’s C) Stop Multiple Sclerosis D) Stop Aphasia
What is the SACRED portal by the Government of India for?
A) To legitimize religious workers5 job status
B) To promote tourism based on religious activities
C) To provide jobs to senior citizens
D) To encourage students towards social work
Who has coined the term ‘BRICS’, an association of five emerging national economies?
A) Ester Doflo B) Amartya Sen C) Jim O’Neil D) Joseph E. Stiglitz
The Indian Metrological Department has a Regional Metrological Centre in which of the following places?
i) Chennai and Guwahati ii) Kolkata and Nagpur

iii) Ranchi and Indore iv) Bengaluru and Lucknow

A) (iii) and (iv) are correct
B) (ii) and (iv) are correct
C) (i) and (iii) are correct
D) (i) and (ii) are correct

Which one of the following does not come under the Jal Jeevan Mission (Urban)?
A) Rejuvenation of water bodies as well as 20% of supply of reused water.
B) Creation of green spaces
C) 2.64 crore sewer connections in the 500 cities
D) Free water supply to all households
‘Symala Gopinath Committee, relates to
A) Nationalised Banks B) Nidhi Companies C) Small Finance Banks D) Cooperative Banks
Which country has passed the ‘Holocaust property bill’?
A) Denmark B) Germany C) Poland D) Slovenia
Megapode Sanctuary was in the news recently. Where is it located?
A) Andaman & Nicobar islands B) Uttar Pradesh C) Uttarakhand D) Rajasthan
Who is the author for the book ‘My Life in Full- Work, Family, and our Future?
A) Sudha Murty . B) Indra Nooyi C) Kiran Mazumdar Shaw D) Parmeshwar Godrej
FIFA World Cup (men) 2022 will be held in:
A) Qatar B) Japan C) Spain D) England
What is India’s rank on the Global Hunger Index, 2020?
A) 94th rank B) 49th rank C) 54th rank D) 98th rank
Who mobilised the villagers of pargana Barout in Uttar Pradesh to join the 1857 revolt?
A) Gonoo B) Shah Mal C) Peshwa Baji Rao D) Nana Sahib

17.Jai Singh and Jaswant Singh were presented the title -Mirza Raja by which Mughal Emperor?

A) Akbar B) Babur C) Aurangzeb D) Bahadhur Shah Zafar I
Who designed the famous bazaar of Chandni Chowk for Shah Jahan’s new capital, Shahjahanabad (Delhi)?
A) Gulbadan Begum B) Roshan Ara C) Jehanara D) Nur Jahan

What is name of the material with which the Harappan Seal is made of?
A) Copper B) Bronze C) Steatite D) Iron
Name the commander of the Ahom army who defeated the Mughal Army at the Battle of Saraighat in 1671 on the Bank of the Brahmaputra River.
A) Rajaram Singh B) Suhungmung C) Tirol Singh D) Lachit Borphukan
In which place did the Gadkari uprising of 1844 take place?
A) Kolhapur B) Poona C) Ahmad Nagar D) Nashik
The Muslim League was founded in 1906 at—
A) Lahore B) Karachi C) Aligarh D) Dacca
Which of the following Chola Kings assumed the title “gangaikodaan”
A) Raja Raja Chola I B) Parantaka Chola II C) Rajendra Chola I D) Karikala Chola
The Vernacular Press Act of 1878, adopted by Lord Lytton was intended to
A) Promote newspapers in the vernacular
B) Restrain vernacular newspapers
C) Promote English newspapers
D) Restrain English newspapers
Vetti refers to:
A) Tax in the form of cash B) Tax in the form of jewellery
C) Tax in the form of food grains D) Tax in the form of forced labour
‘A History of British India’ was written in 1817 by:
A) GH Forbes B) Abul Kalam Azad C) James Mill D) Sucheta Mahajan
Which among the following Vedas has two groups, Shukla and Krishna?
A) Yajurveda C) Rigveda B) Samaveda D) Atharvaveda
Which freedom fighter went to Pondicherry in 1910 to pursue his spiritual goals and remained there until his death, founding a famous Ashram?
A) Aurobindo Ghosh B) Ram Krishna Ghosh C) Mamata Ghosh D) Lalitha Ghosh
Arrange the following rulers in chronological order? i) RAZIA ii) ILTUTMISH iii) BALBAN iv) QUTB-UD-DIN-AIBAK
A) i, ii, iii. iv B) i, iv, iii, ii C) iv, ii, i, iii D) ii, i, iii, iv
Who authored the book ” Poverty and un-British rule”
A) R.C Dutt B) Dadbhai Naoroji C) Sumit Sarkar D) R.C. Majumdar
Consider the following diagram.

Match the central American countries with their capitals.

A) San Salvador b) Guatemala City c) Tegucigalpa d) Managua

Consider the following sentences.
Rubber production begun in the region of Travancore and Malabar.
8% if the world production of rubber is contributed by India.

Which of the above statement/Statements are NOT correct?

1 only B) 2 only C) Both 1 and 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2
What is ‘Biochar”?
A) A form of pesticide B) A chemical based fertiliser
C) A form of charcoal produced from heating organic matter D) A form of chemical found in the soil

Which of the following is true about Kashmir?

1) Vegetation and climate can broadly be categorized into sub-tropical, temperate and alpine zones.
2) More than 50% of the plant species used in British pharmacopoeia are reported to grow in Jammu and Kashmir.
3) The recorded forest area is 20240 Sq. kms.
Choose the correct option given below.

Only 1 C) Only 3 B) Only 1 and 2 D) Only 1 and 3
Which of the following about Baiga tribe is true?

1) Baiga means sorcerers.
2) Traditionally they lived semi-nomadic life and practiced slash and burn agriculture.
3) They have in depth knowledge of folk crop production.
4) Tattoo is an integral part of baiga tradition
Choose the correct option given below.

Only 1, 2 and 4 B) Only 2, 3 and 4 C) Only 1, 3 and 4 D) Only 1, 2 and 3
Consider the following sentences.
India is the 2nd largest producer of the fruits and vegetables in the world.
Totally 12% of the cropped area is oil seeds.

Which of the above statement/Statements are NOT correct?

1 only C) Both 1 and 2 B) 2 only D) Neither 1 nor 2
Which one of the following is the example of radial drainage pattern
A) Siwaliks B) Vindhya mountains. C) Gir hills D) Aravalli mountains
Which among the following state has the highest Percentage of canal irrigation used in India?
A) Rajasthan B) Punjab C) Jammu & Kashmir D) Uttar Pradesh
Consider the following statements around wet lands.
Wet lands can be both aquatic and terrestrial at the same time depending on seasonal variability.
Wet lands are first Targets of human interference.
The boundaries of wet lands are defined as per their geographical location.

Which of the above statements are correct?

Only 1 and 3 C) Only 3 and 2 B) Only 1 and 2 D) Only 2
Consider the following statement

1) When the earth, the moon and the sun are in a straight line, the sun enhances its tides gravitational pull of the moon, creating a condition of higher tides and lower low known as spring tides
2) when the sun and the moon are at right angle to the earth, the sun partially counteracts the pull of the moon, producing lower high tides and higher low tides typical of a neap tide
3) A solar eclipse occurs when the sun passes between the earth and the moon.
4) Lunar eclipse occurs when the earth passes between the sun and the moon.
Which of the given statement above is/are correct

1 and 2 B) 3 and 4 C) 3 only D) 4 only
The UAE has sent a space probe mission to the Mars named
A) ‘Hope’ or ‘Al-Amal’ in Arabic B) ‘Faith’ or ‘Al-Amal’ in Arabic
C) ‘Belief’ or ‘Al-Amal’ in Arabic D) ‘Prayer’ or ‘Al-Amal’ in Arabic
Dolomite deposits have been found in:
A) Odisha, Bengal, Bihar, Maharashtra B) Odisha, Bengal, Bihar, Tamil Nadu
C) Odisha, Bengal, Bihar, Jharkhand D) Odisha, Bengal, Bihar, Chattisgarh
How many centimetres has been added to the revised height of Mount Everest after its re-measurement?

А) 86 сentimetres C) 75 centimeters B) 96 centimeters D) 101 centimeters

Consider the following Diagram.

Match the following Lakes.

Athabasca b. Reindeer c. Great slave d. Winnipegosis

Optimal conditions for this crop to grow include cool to warm tropical climate, rich soils, and few pests or diseases. Temperature above moderate accelerates fruit ripening which ruins harvest quality. Which crop is being referred to?

A)Almonds B) Tea C) Coffee D) Walnuts

Consider the following statements about the aims of the India Enterprise Architecture (IndEA).

1) Making all Government services digitally accessible in an integrated manner.
2) Enhance Efficiency Delivery Services by defining and enforcing service levels of a very high order
3) Maintaining the right balance between security of data and privacy of personal information.
Which of the following statement is correct

Only 1 C) 2 and 3 B) 1,2 and 3 D) 1 and 2.
Who headed the States Committee (for negotiating with states) under the Constituent Assembly in the making of the Indian Constitution?
A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad C) Jawaharlal Nehru B) Sardar Patel D) AVThakkar
Consider the following statements about the Public Interest Litigation (PIL)

1) The concept of PIL originated and developed in the United Kingdom
2) Justice V.R Krishna Iyer and Justice P.N. Bhagwati were the pioneers of the PIL in India.
3) PIL intends to bring justice within the reach of the poor masses.
4) PIL is essentially a co-operative effort on the part of the petitioner to secure observance of the constitutional rights.
5) PIL is considered as absolutely necessary for maintaining the rule of law and meaningful realization of the fundamental rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct

A) 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 C) 2, 3, 4 and 5 B) 2, 3 and 4 D) 1,3, 4 and 5
Consider the following statements about the Scheduled Tribes And Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition Of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.

1) It does not recognize Individual rights like Rights of Self-cultivation.
2) It recognizes the Community Rights as Grazing and Fishing.
3) It ensures land tenure, livelihood and food security of the forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers.
4) It protects the tribal population from eviction without rehabilitation and settlement.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct

1 and 2 C) 2 only B) 4 only D) 1 only

Read the following statements around article 243 H of the Indian constitution.
Authorise a Panchayat to levy, collect and appropriate such taxes, duties, tolls and fees in accordance with such procedure and subject to such limits.
Assign to a Panchayat such taxes, duties, tolls and fees levied and collected by the State Government for such purposes, and subject to such conditions and limits.
Provide for making such grants-in-aid to the Panchayat from the Consolidated Fund of the Centre. Which of these statements is/are true?
A) Only land 2 C) Only 1 and 3 B) Only 2and 3 D) Only 2
Who said “Rights are powers necessary for the fulfilment of man’s vocation as a moral being.”?
A) Beni Prasad C) Laski B) THGreen D) Hobbes
Which of the following statements are true about Governor of a State
The executive power of the state is vested in him
He must have attained 35 years of age
He holds office during the pleasure of the President
The grounds of his removal are laid down in the Constitution

select the correct answer using the codes given below

1,2 and 4 C) 1,3 and 4 91(A) B) 1,2 and 3 D) all of the above
Match the List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

Which of the following statements is not correct about the Pocket Veto of the President?
A) The President can either give his/her assent to a money bill or withhold his assent to a money bill but cannot return it for reconsideration of the Parliament.
B) The President neither ratifies or rejects nor returns the bill, but simply keeps the bill pending for an indefinite period.
C) Power of the President not to take any action is Pocket Veto.
D) In 1986 President Zail Singh exercised it with respect to the Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill.
Ruth Manorama is an Indian woman activist. Mention her area of work
A) Working for Dalit women 91(A) B) Working for HIV infected women
C) Working for tribal women D) Working for urban working women
Consider the following pairs with respect to legislation against untouchability

Which of the pairs given below is/are correctly matched?

a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4 B) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4 C) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-2 D) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
Match the following:

a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3 B) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2 C) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4 D) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

Which Indian President won unopposed?
A) R. Venkataraman C) Giani Zail Singh B) N Sanjeeva Reddy D) VV Giri

59.The parliament exercises control over administration through the executive with

A) General control over the policies and actions of the government through questions, discussions, motions and resolutions.
B) Financial control through budget and audit.
C) Detailed control over financial, administrative and legislative matters through committees.
D) All the above
Naresh Chandra Committee, 2002 was appointed to:
A) Examine age limit for competitive examinations
B) Examine the reservation issues
C) Examine corporate governance issues
D) Examine the domestic violence issues
The Rangarajan panel submitted its report on poverty estimates in January 2014. Major changes were observed in estimation. What are those factors?
Minimum calorie requirement for urban and rural areas.
Behavioural determination of non-food expenses.
Food expenses to include food and protein
Per capita expenditure from urban and rural area separately.

Choose the correct answer

1,2, &3 C) 2&4 1 B) 3&4 D) All the above
Which of the following is related to environmental degradation?
Extraction in Carrying Capacity
Waste generated in Absorptive Capacity
Conservation of renewable and non -renewable resources
Opportunity cost of negative environment impact

Select the correct codes:

1and 2 B) 4 only C) 1,2 and 3 D) 3 and 4
Read the following statements.
Balance of payments of a country is an aggregate record of domestic economic transactions of a country.
These transactions include exports and imports of goods, services and financial assets, along with transfer payments (like foreign aid).
The balance of payments is an important economic indicator for ‘open’ economies

Which of the given statements is/are true?

Only 1 B) Only 1 and 2 C) Only 1 and 3 D) Only 2 and 3
Read the following statements around FDI in India.
During FY 2020-21 total FDI inflow of $58.37 bn, 22% higher as compared to the first 8 months of 2019-20.
FDI inflows in India have consistently increased since FY 2014-15.
FDI equity inflow grew by 120% in the first three months of the FY 2021-22.

Which of the given statements is/are true.

A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Only 1 and 2 D) Only 3
Stand up India:
Facilitates bank loans to SC or ST borrower.
It facilitates a loan amount of 10 lakh to 50 lakhs.
The loan is provided for setting up a greenfield enterprise.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Only 1 and 2 D) Only 1 and 3
Which of the following is not a step under Atma Nirbhar Bharat?
A) Disallowing Global tender of up to 200 crores.
B) Increase in borrowing limits of Private banks account from RBI.
C) Elimination of regulatory assets D) One nation one card for migrant workers
D) One nation one card for migrant workers
Theil Index, Gini Index and Palma ratio measures
A) Social inequality C) Regional Disparity B) Income Inequality D) Spread of Biodiversity
Which of the following is true in relation to ECOTAХ?
Tax imposed on private parties to feel the social burden of their action.
Increased tax on petroleum
Are applied on business firms and commercial entities
Tax levied for creating positive externalities.
A) 1&2 B) 2&4 C) 3 &4 D) 1& 3
Which of the following is not true about The Essential Commodities Act 1955?
The central government cannot add or remove commodities from the list mentioned in the act.
The central government can provide for regulating or prohibiting the production, supply and distribution thereof and trade and commerce therein.
The central government can order the produce of essential commodity to be brought in for inspection

Choose the correct option.

Only 1 B) Only 3 C) Only 2 and 3 D) Only 1 and 2

The key aspects of major sustainable development views can be matched as:

1-c, 2-a, 3-b B) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c C) 1-b, 2-c, 3-а D) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b
The 2030 agenda for sustainable development provides a global blueprint and stimulates action in the following areas:
A) People, planning, prosperity, peace and partnership
B) People, peace, prosperity, planet and partnership
C) Peace, people, prosperity, plants and partnership
D) Peace, people, planning, planet and partnership
The Venture Capital Assistance scheme aims at providing assistance to agripreneurs in the form of:
A) Low rate interest loans C) Waiver of tax B) Subsidised tools and equipment. D) Interest free loans
Ecological foot print is a method of gauging the
A) Biodiversity of a region B) Human dependence on natural resources
C) Volume of human migration D) Amount of carbon dioxide emitted
A common problem of development models, is its heavy dependency on
A) Energy B) Human resources C) Financial capital D) Political power
What is the major cause of coral bleaching?
A) Pollution in oceans B) Warm water C) Chemicals in ocean D) Oil spills
In the freshwaters ofriver Ganga, a variety of dolphins named ______ are found
A) Dolma C) Saka B) Susu D) Doha.
The non-native species successfully establishes in the introduced environment and causes the damage to the environment due to

1) Better adaptation to the new environment 2) All the niches are utilized by the native species
3) Absence of natural enemies in the introduced region 4) Low biotic potential
Choose the correct option.

1 and 2 C) 1 and 4 B) 1 and 3 D) 2 and 4

Liana density in tropical latitude is

1) A negative relationship with mean annual precipitation
2) A negative relationship with the length of the dry season period
3) A positive relationship with mean annual precipitation
4) A positive relationship with the length of the dry season period
Choose the correct option.
A) 1 and 2 B) 1 and 3 C) 1 and 4 D) 2 and 3
79. Considering the following pairs
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched based on hyper accumulation potential of specific metal A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 2 and 4 only

Match the following pairs correctly

A) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv B) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
C) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i D) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
The loss of genetic diversity in an isolated small population could be attributed to

1) Mutation 2) Inbreeding 3) Speciation 4) Genetic drift

A) 1 and 2 C) 2 and 4 B) 2 and 3 D) 1 and 4
The gradual change in the direction of the earth’s axis is called
A) Wandering Polar C) Precession B) Continental drift D) Euler’s effect
Homeostasis means
A) A tendency of an ecosystem to resist change and to remain in a state of equilibrium
B) A property of an ecosystem to withstand all kinds of environmental changes
C) A characteristic of an ecosystem to convert into changes of pollution
D) An ecosystem never respond to environmental change

84. Match the following:

1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d B) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d C) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b D) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
Western ghats of India is known as
A) Endemic Queen C) Endemic Ghat B) Endemic Crown D) Endemic Home
Find out the correct order of sequence of vertical structure of the atmosphere from lower to higher altitudes
A) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere and Thermosphere
B) Stratosphere, Troposphere, Mesosphere and Thermosphere
C) Stratosphere, Troposphere, Thermosphere and Mesosphere
D) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Thermosphere and Mesosphere
Match List I correctly with List II and select your answer using codes given below:

Which quantum phenomenon was Albert Einstein referring to in his expression “spooky action at a distance”?
A) Quantum tunnelling B) Uncertainty Principle C) Superposition D) Quantum entanglement
In what cases can the three equations of motion be applied?
In one dimensional motion ii. In circular motion iii. Simple harmonic motion iv. When acceleration is constant
A) only i C) only iv B) i and ii D) ii, iii, and iv
Among the following theories which one is discuss about metal-free electrons?
A) Werner’s theory C) VB theory B) Sidwick’s theory D) Drude-Lorentz theory
What is a white dwarf?
A) It is a stellar core which remains after the star has used up all of its nuclear fuel.
B) It is the explosion of a star.
C) They are highly compact, magnetized, rotating stars.
D) It is an extremely luminous active galactic nucleus, powered by a supermassive black hole.
On which of the following planets does the sun rise in the West?
A) Mercury C) Jupiter B) Venus D) Mars
What does eutrophication refer to?
A) Natural aging of a lake by nutrient enrichment of its water
B) Natural aging of lake by nutrient deficit of its water
C) Natural expansion of a lake with time
D) Natural increasing of the depth of a lake with time
By what factor is the electromagnetic force stronger than the gravitational force?
A) 10² C) 10²⁸B) 10¹⁶D) 10³⁶
Which one of the following is not true about the structure of DNA?
A) DNA is a double stranded helix with sugar-phosphate as backbone.
B) DNA is always a right handed helix.
C) DNA strands run in opposite direction.
D) DNA has both major and minor grooves.

German silver is an alloy of
A) Copper and tin B) Zinc, silver and copper C) Copper and nickel D) Copper, zinc and nickel
The growth in response to touch stimulus is called as
A) Gravitropism B) Phototropism C) Thigmotropism D) Chemotropism
What field of Science is the Bragg’s law related to?
A) Thermodynamics B) Solid State Physics C) Biotechnology D) Astrophysics

What is India’s share of the global species diversity?
A) 2% C) 6% B) 4% D) 8%
Plants that grow in water are called as Hydrophytes. What name is given to plants that grow in desert conditions?
A) Halophytes B) Xerophytes C) Mesophytes D) Phaeophytes

2018
1.Which of the following combination of districts constitutes Chenab Valley Settlement Division of the “Survey and Land Records™
(A) Kishtwar, Anantnag and Kulgam (B) Ramban, Udhampur and Doda
(C) Doda, Kishtwar and Ramban (D) Kishtwar, Anantnag and Doda

‘Which one of the following is the high altitude Commercial Airport

(A) Kushok Bakyla (B) Sheikhul Alam (c) Kargil (D) Sonam Wangchuk

Which is the largest cold desert of the world?

(A) Atacama (B) Takla Makan (C) Gobi (D) Turkestan
4.The first multi-purpose river valley project completed in India is (A) Periyar (B) Bhakra-Nangal
(C) Hirakund (D) Damodar
5.Theintrusive volcanic landform formed when lava cools in the shape of a saucer place is called as
(A) Laccolith (B) Crater (C) sills (D) Dykes

Minto-Morley reforms of 1909 proposed

(A) Elections of Indians to various Legislative Councils (B) Introduced the system of Municipalities and Village Panchayats
(C) Both(A)and(B)
(D) None of the above

Indian Statutory Commission was also known as

(A) Cripps Mission (B) Simon Commission
(C) Minto-Morley Reforms (D) Montague-Chelmsford Reforms

Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, a centrally sponsored scheme has been implemented in partnership with the State Governments. Consider the following statements.
It makes provision for building school infrastructure
It provides periodic training to teachers and resource support
It helps to maintain appropriate pupil teacher ratio at the secondary education level ‘

Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
l only (B) 1and 2only (C) 2 and 3only (D) 1 and 3only

The second largest employment provider in India is

(A) Agriculture, mining and quarrying (B) Manufacturing
(C) Real estate and construction (D) Information technology and related services

Which planet experiences a day almost of the same duration as that of the Earth?

(A) Mars (B) Saturn (C) Venus (D) Jupiter

The region lying between Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn is called

(A) Torrid zone (B) Horse latitudes (c) Subtropical zone (4) All of the above

Which of the following is/are the correct statement/ statements in case of a sea level rise due to global warming

(A) There will be an increase in bicarbonate content of well water in coastal areas
(B)There will be an increase in sodium content of well water in coastal areas
(C) There will be an increase in potassium content of well water in coastal areas
(D)There will be an increase in nitrate content of well water in coastal areas

In Himalayas, permanent vegetation is not generally found above _____m altitude
A) 4250 B) 4350 (C) 4600 D) 3960
Blue Baby Syndrome is associated with which type of poisoning?

(A) Mercury (B) Nitrate (C) Cadmium (D) Methane

Out of following, which of the altitudes in the‘ atmosphere would have the maximum concentration of Ozone?

(A) 5 to 10km B) 10 to 15km (C) 25 t0 30km (D) 40 to 45km

Which of the following has been voted the most influential woman in history as per the recent Readers of BBC History magazine poll?

(A) Marie Curie (B) Margaret Thatcher (C) Mother Teresa (D) Indira Gandhi

Which of the following received the Golden Ball award for best player at the 2018 FIFA World Cup?

(A) Kylian Mbappe (B) Cristiano Ronaldo (C) Thibaut Courtois (D) Luka Modric

Which of the following committee has been constituted by the Reserve Bank of India to look into bank frauds?

(A) AKMisraCommittee (B) Nandkumar Saravade Committee
(C) YH.Malegam Committee (D) SRaman Committee

The projected India’s GDP growth in the 2018- 19 fiscal, as per the International Monetary Fund (IMF) is
A) 7.8% B) 7.3% C) 7.1% D) 7.6%

Indian Reform Association was founded by

(A) Keshab Chandra Sen (B) Ramanand Sinha (C) Atmaram Sen (D) Lala Lajpat Rai

With reference to legislative procedure in India, consider the following statements about ‘Zero Hour’:
Zero Hour is the time gap between the end of Question Hour and the beginning of the regular business of the House.
The time immediately before the beginning of Question Hour is called as Zero Hour.
Matters of urgent importance, as agreed by the Chair, are taken up during Zero Hour.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2only (C) 1 and3 D) 2and3

Col. H S Olcott was associated with

(A) Theosophical Society (B) Home Rule League (C) Brahmo Samaj (D) Servants of India Society

With reference to legislative procedure in India, consider the following statements:
The purpose of a Calling Attention Notice is to conduct a discussion on a matter of urgent public importance.
Answers to Starred Questions are given in written form by the Ministers.
Clause-by-clause discussion and voting on Amendments take place in the Third stage of the passage of a Bill.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (

A) 1 and2 (B) 1only (C) 3only (D) 2and3
According to Census of India-2011, which one of the following urban agglomeration has the highest population?

(A) Chennai (B) Bangalore (C) Hyderabad (D) Ahmedabad

Consider the following statements:
The Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to issue Writs for enforcement of any of the Fundamental Rights conferred by Part III of the Indian Constitution under Art. 32.
The provision to issue Writs is primarily intended to guarantee the Right to Constitutional Remedies to every citizen.
There are six types of Writs.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(A) 1lonly (B) 2only (C) Bothland2 D) 1,2and3

The Widow Remarriage Act was passed during the Governor-Generalship of

(A) Lord Dalhousie (B) Lord Canning (C) Lord Ripon (D) Lord Warren Hastings

The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act applies to children in the age group of (A) 5 to 12 years (B) 6 to 12 years (C) 6 to 14 years (D) 6 to 16 years
Which of the following is/are not among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?
To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures
To aid and assist differently abled persons

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 3only (B) 4only (C) 3and4 D) 1 and3

Capital of the Vijayanagar Empire was:

(A) Hampi (B) Vijayawada (C) Badami (D) Chitradurga

The Bharat Net Project, an important component of Digital India Programme aims at linking the following institutions throughout India

(A) Gram Panchayats (B) Municipalities (C) City Corporations (D) Notified Areas

Goods and Services Tax subsumes

(A) All direct taxes (B) All indirect taxes (C) All direct and indirect taxes (D) Value Added Tax

In 2016, Government of India announced a demonetisation of high denomination notes. What was the previous year of demonetisation?

(A) 1950 B) 1946 C) 1978 D) 1980

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
i) In Stratosphere, Ozone is formed by joining oxygen atom with oxygen molecule in presence of solar radiation
ii) The disassociation of oxygen atom in the presence of solar radiation maintains the balance of Ozone in the Stratosphere

iii) The maximum concentration of Ozone is around 23-25 km from the Earth’s surface

iv) The destruction of Stratospheric ozone by green house gases has reduced considerably during last 5 years due to the Montreal Protocol.

(A) i,ii,iii and iv are correct (B) i,ii and iii are correct (C) ii and iii are correct (D) i, iii and iv are correct

Which of the following in not correct with respect to Chinese economy

(A) It is very large (B) It relies on exports to fuel its economic growth (C) It relies on domestic-demand-led economic growth (D) Global economic growth rate is lower than Chinese

Number of Meteorological Subdivisions in India

(A) 34 B) 35 C) 36 D) 37

The Ramsar Convention is about the conservation of which one of the following?

(A) Mountain flora and fauna (B) Wetlands (C) Desert Flora and Fauna (D) Tropical Rain Forests

Acid Rain usually refers to precipitation with pH less than:
A) 7.0 B) 6.5 C) 5.6 D) 4.0
Coal is found in which types of rocks?

(A) Igneous (B) Sedimentary (C) Metamorphic (D) All of the above

Which of the following was not a disaster related to a nuclear accident?

The Allahabad Pillar inscription is associated with

(A) Samudragupta (B) Chandragupta Il (C) Bimbisara (D) Chandragupta l

Ibn Battuta visited India during the reign of

(A) Mohammed bin Tughlaq (B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq (C) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq D) Ala-ud-dinKhilji

Swami Vivekananda participated in the World Religious Conference held at

(A) Baltimore (B) New York (C) Chicago (D) California

Panini a famous personality of ancient India was

(A) Astronomer (B) Mathematician (C) Grammarian (D) None of the above

‘What are the impediments to digital transaction of money in small towns of India?

(A) Requirement of special equipment like Point Of Sale (POS)

B) Internet connectivity problem

C)Costly to users
D)All the above

Implicit effective subsidy on a commodity (e.g. LPG) to rich means

(A) Difference between price paid and actual subsidy
B)Difference between normative rate and actual subsidy
C)Subsidy on actual consumption
D)None of the above

“More crop per drop’ refers to

(A) Improvement in irrigation efficiency
(B) Use of conventional method of irrigation
(C) Improvement in soil health
(D) Improvement in fertilizer use efficiency

Udyog Aadhar is required for registration of (A) Business under micro, small and medium enterprises
B) Business under large enterprises
C) Corporate bodies

D)Public sector undertakings

Focus of the National Rural Livelihood Mission is to

A)remove abject poverty of rural households
B)improve rural literacy
C)remove gender disparity in education
D)improve nutrition of children

Which one of the following is the longest river of the Peninsular India?

(A) Narmada (B) Godavari (C) Krishna (D) Mahanadi

Which part is the brain of the computer?

(A) CPU (B) Monitor (C) RAM (D) ROM

Firewall is used in PC for

(A) Security (B) Authentication (C) Data transmission (D) All of the above

‘Which hormone is produced by ripened fruit?

(A) Auxin (B) Cytokinin (C) Ethylene (D) Abscisic acid

Nag Anti Tank Guided Missiles (ATGM) has been developed by which Indian organization?

(A) DRDO (B) BARC (C) ISRO (D) HAL

President Ram Nath Kovind has inaugurated the World Hindi Secretariat in which country?

(A) Fiji (B) Madagascar (C) South Africa (D) Mauritius

NASA recently announced a new probe called Parker Probe which will study. ?

(A) Moon (B) Mars (C) Jupiter (D) Sun

The Sample Registration System of India provides data on

(A) Fertility only (B) Mortality only (C) Fertility and Mortality (D) Fertility, Morbidity and Mortality
57 Through which of the following mountain pass, the World’s highest motorable road passes?
(A) Karakoram (B) Khyber (C) Nathu la (D) Khardung la

What is the name of the robot (to assist astronauts) that has been sent to the International Space Station (ISS) atop a SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket

(A) GERTY (B) CIMON (C) KITT (D) DOREAMON

The ancient text which Kalhana relied in writing Rajatarangini

(A) Matsyapurana (B) Khandopanishad (C) Nilmat Purana (D) Mahabharata

A resident of Britain wants to contact her relative in Srinagar during sunrise hours and wants to ‘wish him new year greetings. At what British local time she should make a call to India?

(A) Between 1.30 am and 2.30 am (B) Between 30 minutes past mid night and 1.30am (C) Between 2am and 3 am (D) Between 4.30 am and 5.30 am

Which of the following poetry /short story was written by Autar Krishen Rahbar, which won Sahitya Akademy Award for Kashmiri literature, 2017?

(A) AaneKhane (B) Yeli Parda Woth (C) Yath Aangnas Manz (D) Yaad Aasmanan Hinz

Consider the following statements:
Govemor’s Ruleimposed in Jammu and Kashmir. President Ram Nath Kovind has given his assent to imposition of Govemnor’s rule in Jammu and Kashmir. This is the eighth time in the last four decades J & K has been put under Governor’srule.
– This is the Second time under J&K Governor N N Vohra tenure.
The Governor’s rule was implemented in the Jammu & Kashmir for the first time in 1977, which continued around 105 days; from March 26, 1977 to 9 July 1977.
This is the fifth time governors rule is imposed in J & K

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(A) land3 (B) 2only (C) 2and4 (D) 4only

Yavanapriya was the name used in ancient times for

(A) Muslin (B) Pepper (C) Copper (D) Zinc

The capital of the Kakatiya dynasty was

(A) Ongole (B) Warangal (C) Tungabhadra (D) Tirupati

When was the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir adopted and came into effect from.

(A) 1956, January 26, 1957 B) 1956, October 26, 1956
(C) 1957, January 26, 1958. (D) 1956, December 26, 1957

In the pedogenesis, by mixing activities, earthworms improves the

(A) Structure (B) pH balance (C) Texture (D) Organic content

Consider the following statements:
The Writ of Mandamus is issued by the Supreme Court or High Court when any public authority has to do a public duty, but fails to do so.
The Writ of Prohibition is issued by the Supreme Court or High Court for quashing the order already passed by an inferior Court, Tribunal or Quasi Judicial Authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) l only (B) 2only (C) Bothland2 (D) Neither 1 nor2

The best source of data for the estimation of crude birth rate of India is

(A) National Family Health Survey (B) Civil Registration System
(C) Sample Registration System (D) Census of India

The longest high altitude glaciers are found in

(A) Alps (B) Rockies (C) Andes (D) Himalayas

Which of the following Indian states receives more rainfall from the winter monsoon than from the summer monsoon?

(A) Bihar B) Gujarat (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu

List of lakes and states are given below:

Which of the following options correctly matches the lakes with the states where they are situated?
(A) a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-1 B) a-IIL, b1V, c-I, d-II
(C) a-IV, b-l, c-II, d-III D) a-IIL, b-IV, c-II, d-I

The main objective behind the POSHAN abhiyan launched by the Government of India is

(A) Reducing stunting in children in the age group of 0-6 years.
(B) Increasing the nutritional intake of Women.
(C) Reducing the stunting in children in the age group of 10-14.
(D) Increasing the nutritional intake of age population.

Newly proposed “Higher Education Commission of India (HECI)” will replace

(A) All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) (B) National Council for Teachers’ Education (NCTE) (C) National Council for Education and Research and Training (NCERT) (D) University Grants Commission (UGC)

Which of the following city, Home Minister Rajnath Singh inaugurated the world’s largest visa center.

(A) Dhaka (B) New Delhi (C) Kolkata (D) Colombo

Which of the following is the major reason for global warming

(A) Rice cultivation in marshy lands (B) Burning of fossil fuels
(C) Thermal power generation (D) Deforestation and land cover change

Which of the following atmospheric conditions is most favourable for the formation of fog in Delhi? (A) Overcast sky, dry air in winter (B) Clear sky, dry air in winter

Which city to host Commonwealth Games in 2022?

(A) Sydney (B) Birmingham (C) New York (D) Rome

Match the noble laureate who received the Noble prize in 2017 with their respective subject/field

Choose the correct answer
(A) a-III ,b-I, c-II ,d-IV

B) a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III
C) a-I, b-III, c-IV, d-II
D) a-IV, b-II, c-I, d-III
Who among the following is NOT a recipient of the Highest Civilian award of India Bharat Ratna

(A) M.G Ramachandran (B) Lata Mangeshkar (C) Madan Mohan Malviya (D) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma

With regard to the HRIDAY scheme, consider the following statements:
It is a health scheme aimed at taking special care of heart patients in the rural areas.
It is an investment scheme aimed at developing traditional medical research.
It is a development scheme with the aim of linking urban planning and heritage conservation in an inclusive manner.

Which of the statements given above is correct?
(A) 1 only B) 2only (C) 3only (D) None of the above

Right to Information Act in India was enacted in the year (
A) 2004 (B) 2005 (C) 2008 D) 2012
Which programme has been launched by NITI Aayog to initiate transformation in the education and health sectors with the state governments?
Unnat Bharat Programme 2. SATH Programme 3. SETU Programme

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) 1only B) 2only C) 3only D) None of the above
Which one of the following country is not a member of BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi – Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation).

(A) Sri Lanka (B) Pakistan (C) Nepal (D) Thailand

National Panchayati Raj Day is celebrated annually on

A)26 January B) 15 September C)24 April D)2 October

Which of the following recommendation(s) is/ are true regarding Balwant Rai Mehta Committee?:
Establishment of three-tier Panchayati Raj system
All planning and development activities should be entrusted to Panchayati Raj institutions
Political parties should field candidates in the Panchayati Raj elections.
District Collector should be the Chairman of Zilla Parishad

Select the correct answer using the code below:
(A) 1,2and3 B) 1,2and4 (C) 1,3and4 D) 1,2,3and4

The President has the power to nominate two members to Parliament belonging to

(A) Christian Community (B) Anglo-Indian Community (C) Jain Community (D) Sikh Community

Which village in Jammu and Kashmir’s Rajouri district, received electricity connection and metalled road for the first time since Independence?

(A) Narla Bambal (B) Chattiar (C) Dasallattan (D) Keri Manialan

Which of the following is the state animal of Jammu and Kashmir?

(A) Chiru (B) Hangul (C) Snow leopard (D) Markhor

Who was the author of Padmavat

(A) Abdul Rahim Wasi (B) Malik-bin-Quazi (C) Malik Muhammed Jayasi (D) Surdas

The fourth Buddhist Council was held in

(A) Prayag (B) Dharmasala (C) Taxila (D) Kundalvana

According to the Public Affairs Index 2018 which state stands first in best-governance in India?

(A) Kerala (B) West Bengal (C) Tamil Nadu (D) Madhya Pradesh

Which famous personality won Dada saheb Phalke Excellence Award 2018?

(A) Anil Kapoor (B) SalmanKhan (C) Sonam Kapoor (D) Anushka Sharma

Which nation withdrew from the United Nations Human Rights Council, recently?

(A) Germany (B) United States (C) Russia (D) Canada

‘Who has been conferred with “Chief Minister of the Year” award?

(A) Shivraj Singh Chouhan (B) Mamata Banerjee (C) Vasundhara Raje (D) Jairam Thakur

‘Who wrote Ramayana in Tamil

(A) Ramna (B) Kamban (C) Thiruvel Murugan (D) None of the above

During the Mughals Muhtasib was an officer in charge of

(A) Horses (B) Public morality (C) Land grants (D) Royal Armoury

Delhi Agreement of 1952 was signed between

(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad and Mirza Mohammad Afzal Beg
(B) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and Maulana Mohammed Syeed Masoodi (C) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru and Sheikh Mohammed Abdullah
(D)Moulana Abul Kalam Azad and Giridhari Lal Dogra

The last Muslim ruler who goverened the principality of Rajouri before it was handed over to Raja Gulab Singh was _______

(A) RajaNoor-ud-Din (B) RajaRaheem Ullah Khan (C) RajaAggar Ullah Khan (D) RajaKaram Ullah Khan

What is the quorum to constitute a sitting of the Lok Sabha?

(A) 120 Members of the House
(B) One-Tenth of the total number of the House.
(C) 132 Members of the House
(D) 130 elected Members of the House

Swachh Bharat campaign aims to achieve the goal of a ‘Clean India’ by

(A) 2 October 2019 (B) 15August2020 (C) 26 January 2022 (D) None of the above

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