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  • JKPSC Assistant Registrar Syllabus 2021 
  • Subject
  • Topics
  • General Knowledge about Current Affairs
  • • History
  • • Geography
  • • Political Science
  • • Economics
  • • Issues of National and International importance
  • Computers and Telecommunication
  • • Concepts
  • • Applications
  • • Usage in communication and public relations.
  • Indian Polity with special focus on Jammu and Kashmir
  • • Evolution of the political system in pre and post-independence era.
  • • Modern trends in the political system.
  • • Role and contribution of State/UT Politics in Federal Structure with special reference to Jammu and Kashmir.
  • Geography of India with a focus on Jammu and Kashmir
  • • Importance of Geography.
  • • General Geography
  • • Physical Geography
  • • Climate, soil, and vegetation
  • • Economic Geography
  • Historical perspective of Cooperative involvement,
  • • Need for Cooperatives
  • • Origin and development of Cooperatives
  • History of Cooperative Movement
  • • Origin, development, and importance of Cooperative Movement
  • • Series of legislation on Cooperatives
  • • Various committees framed at the National and international level for the development of Cooperatives.
  •  Types of Cooperative, Agriculture Cooperative, Farmers Cooperative, Supply Cooperative, Business & Employment Cooperative, New Generation Cooperative and Housing Cooperative
  • • The Jammu and Kashmir Cooperative Societies Act, 1989
  • • The Jammu and Kashmir Cooperative Societies Rules, 2001
  • • The Jammu and Kashmir Self Reliant Cooperative Act, 1999
  • • Credit Structure Societies (Cooperative Banks and PACS) and regulatory role of Reserve Bank of India and Registrar Cooperative Societies
  • • Role of National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) and National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) for schemes in the Cooperative Sector
  • • General mental and analytical ability, comprehension, and logical reasoning
  • JKPSC Assistant Registrar Exam Pattern 2021 
  • According to the official notification, the JKPSC Assistant Registrar Exam Pattern will consist of two stages of recruitment. These would include an MCQ-based written examination and a viva voce/interview round. 
  • Written exam subjects
  • Questions
  • Marks
  • Duration
  • General Knowledge about Current Affairs
  • 120
  • 120
  • 2 hours
  • Computers and Telecommunication
  • Indian Polity with special focus on Jammu and Kashmir
  • Geography of India with focus on Jammu and Kashmir
  • Historical perspective of Cooperative involvement
  • History of Cooperative Movement
  • Viva-voce/Interview Round

  • 25

  • Written Examination
  • The JKPSC Assistant Registrar written examination will be entirely MCQ-based. For every question, one mark will be allotted. For every incorrect and multiple marked response, 0.25 marks will be deducted as per the negative marking provision. Candidates who score past the cut off determined for the written examination will be shortlisted for the next round.
  • Viva-voce/Interview Round
  • The interview round will assess the candidate’s domain knowledge and skills. It will also analyse the personal suitability of the candidate in public service. Questions on matters of general interest and matters related to the post will be asked. The interview round will carry a total of 25 marks. This will be counted in determining the final merit of the candidate.
  • JKPSC Assistant Registrar 2021 Preparation Strategy
  • In order to qualify for the JKPSC Assistant Registrar test, candidates must develop and implement an effective preparation strategy. Candidates looking for the JKPSC Assistant Registrar Job Profile must cover the complete course and make time to correct deficiencies and shortfalls while preparing. Candidates interested in the JKPSC Assistant Registrar position may review the following recommendations to boost their preparation and score higher.
  • Practising model sets and attempting previous year’s questions: Provided that the written test is entirely objective and MCQ-based, reviewing previous year’s question papers would prove to be crucial. Furthermore, attempting and analysing one’s performance in the model sets would contribute to the process.
  • Learning the syllabus and planning an effective routine: Given the fact that there are two stages of the recruitment process, candidates must schedule time slots to prepare adequately for both. For the written examination, a thorough understanding of the syllabus is extremely important.
  • Regular Revision: The most crucial part of the preparation plan is revision. Rather than editing all chapters at the end, revise on a regular basis, that is when each chapter is done.
  • JKPSC Assistant Registrar Exam 2021: Books for Preparation
  • Candidates should study the most suggested and excellent JKPSC Assistant Registrar Books to prepare for the test. Furthermore, extra study materials and internet resources like note compilations, previous year’s question papers, model papers, and mock exams might be helpful in providing a thorough grasp of the JKPSC Assistant Registrar Syllabus. The following is a list of JKPSC Assistant Registrar books:
  • Subject
  • Books
  • Author
  • Publisher
  • General Knowledge
  • Indian Heritage, Art, and Culture
  • Madhukar Kumar Bhagat
  • GK Publications Pvt. Ltd.
  • Indian Polity
  • Indian Polity
  • M. Laxmikanth
  • McGraw-Hill Publications
  • Cooperative Movement
  • The Cooperative Movement
  • Richard C. Williams
  • Routledge Publications
  •  
  • Previous Year Paper – 2021
  1. Which of the following statements about Kanishka is notcorrect?
    A) Kanishka was a Buddhist
    B) Kanishka was deeply influenced by Ashvaghosha
    C) Kanishka built a Stupa at Purushapura
    D) Kanishka convened the ThirdBuddhist Council at Kashmir
  2. The Battle of Chandawar (1193–94) was fought between:
    A) Prithviraj Chauhan and Muhammad Ghori
    B) Jayapala and Mahmud of Ghazni
    C) Jaichand of Kannauj and Muhammad Ghori
    D) None of the above
  3. Arrange the following administrative units of the Chola Empire in ascending order (smallest to largest):
    A) Valanadu →Nadu →Mandalam → Kurram
    B) Kurram → Nadu → Valanadu → Mandalam
    C) Mandalam → Valanadu → Nadu → Kurram
    D) Kurram → Mandalam → Nadu → Valanadu
  4. Which ruler wrote poetry under the pen-name Gulrukhi?
    A) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
    B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
    C) Sikandar Lodi
    D) Baz Bahadur
  5. Match the following travelers with their respective homelands:
  6. i) Nicolo Conti —
    ii) Abdul Razzaq —
    iii) Ibn Battuta —
    iv) Domingo Paes —
  7. Morocco
  8. Italy
  9. Portugal
  10. Persia
  • Code:
    A) i–2, ii–4, iii–1, iv–3
    B) i–4, ii–2, iii–1, iv–3
    C) i–1, ii–4, iii–2, iv–3
    D) i–2, ii–1, iii–4, iv–3
  1. Which of the following chronological arrangements is correct?
  2. Surat Congress →Rowlatt Act → Dandi March → Gandhi-Irwin Pact
  3. Dandi March →Gandhi-Irwin Pact → Surat Congress → Rowlatt Act
  4. Surat Congress →Rowlatt Act → Gandhi-Irwin Pact → Dandi March
  5. Gandhi-Irwin Pact →Surat Congress → Rowlatt Act → Dandi March
  6. Which material was used to make beads, bangles, and small vessels in the Harappan Civilization?
    A) Iron
    B) Copper
    C) Faience
    D) Tin
  7. Consider the following pairs of local winds and their regions:
  8. i) Sirocco — Sahara to the Mediterranean
    ii) Khamsin — Spain
    iii) Levant — Egypt
    iv) Harmattan — Guinea, West Africa
  • Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
    A) i & ii
    B) ii & iii
    C) iii & iv
    D) i & iv
  1. Consider the following recently published books and their authors:
  2. i) By Many a Happy Accident: Recollections of a Life— Mohammad Hamid Ansari
    ii) The Long Game: How the Chinese Negotiate with India— Nirupama Rao
    iii) Because India Comes First — Ram Madhav
    iv) An Ordinary Life: Portrait of an Indian Generation — Ashok Lavasa
    v) India Versus China: Why They Are Not Friends — Kanti Bajpai
  • Which of the above matches are correct?
    A) i, iii, iv and v
    B) ii, iii and iv
    C) i, ii, iii, iv and v
    D) ii and v
  1. In 2020, international media widely covered a young female activist nicknamed “Mulan” (after the legendary Chinese heroine), for her pivotal role in Hong Kong’s pro-democracy protests. Who was she?
    A) Agnes Chow
    B) Went Yu Ching
    C) Jocelyn Chau
    D) Greta Thunberg
  2. The supercomputer launched by Iran, named after a mythical bird, is:
    A) Simorgh
    B) Phoenix
    C) Yaogan
    D) Griffin
  3. The world’s first Artificial Intelligence (AI) ship, designed to study rough seas, is named:
    A) Sunflower 300
    B) Voyager 1
    C) SpaceX
    D) Mayflower 400
  4. On 29th November 1947, the UN asked Israel and Palestine to achieve a Two-State solution. This day is observed as:
    A) International Day of Solidarity
    B) International Day of Tolerance
    C) International Day of Humanity
    D) International Day of Unity
  5. Which of the following Asian countries lie on the Equator?
    A) Indonesia and Malaysia
    B) The Maldives and Sri Lanka
    C) Philippines and Vietnam
    D) Indonesia and Maldives
  6. The Lorenz Curve represents:
    A) The relationship between cumulative proportion of income and cumulative proportion of population in income distribution
    B) The relationship between cumulative proportion of savings and proportion of population
    C) The relationship between cumulative proportion of investment and proportion of population
    D) All of the above
  7. According to the Theory of Demographic Transition, the third stageof population growth is characterized by:
    A) High birth rate and high death rate
    B) Falling birth rate and low, stationary death rate leading to rapidly rising population
    C) High and stationary birth rate with sharply declining death rate
    D) Stationary population at a very low level
  8. According to Gunnar Myrdal, the main reason behind regional inequalities in underdeveloped countries is:
    A) Strong backward and strong spread effects
    B) Strong spread effect and weak backward effect
    C) Strong backward effect and weak spread effect
    D) Strong spread effect only
  1. A facility under which scheduled commercial banks can borrow additional overnight money from the Reserve Bank by dipping into their Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) portfolio up to a limit, at a penal rate of interest. This refers to:
    A) Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)
    B) Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF)
    C) Market Stabilisation Scheme (MSS)
    D) Bank Rate
  2. Before August 2019, Jammu & Kashmir was constitutionally different from the rest of India. Consider the following statements:
    i) The State List of the Seventh Schedule was not applicable to Jammu & Kashmir.
    ii) Residuary power of legislation was vested in the State Assembly.
    iii) Fundamental Rights (Part III) were not applicable to Jammu & Kashmir.
    iv) The Legislative Assembly of the State had to be consulted in case of alteration of the boundaries of the State.
  • Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    A) i, ii, iii & iv
    B) i, ii & iv
    C) ii, iii & iv
    D) ii & iii
  1. Which of the following is notcorrect about the Jammu and Kashmir Official Languages Bill, 2020?
    A) The Bill was introduced and passed in Parliament in September 2020.
    B) Three languages were included in the list of official languages of Jammu & Kashmir.
    C) Gurjari and Pahari were added as official languages.
    D) Earlier, Urdu and English were the only official languages.
  2. The representatives of Union Territories in the Rajya Sabha are:
    A) Nominated by the President
    B) Indirectly elected by members of an electoral college specially constituted for the purpose
    C) Nominated by the Union Territory Government
    D) Not represented in the House
  1. Consider the following statements:
    i) The process of removal of the State Election Commissioner is similar to the removal of a Judge of a State High Court.
    ii) A Council of Ministers must always exist to advise the Governor, even after the dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly.
    iii) Article 356 can be invoked only on the written recommendation of the Cabinet.
  • Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    A) ii only
    B) iii only
    C) i & ii
    D) i & iii
  1. If State laws on subjects mentioned in the Concurrent List conflict with a Central Law, which of the following applies?
    i) The State law prevails over the Central law if the State Legislature passes it again with special majority.
    ii) In most cases, the matter is moved to the Supreme Court, which decides on the validity of the respective laws in the larger national interest.
  • Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    A) i only
    B) ii only
    C) Both i and ii
    D) None of the above
  1. Consider the following statements:
    i) The Prime Minister must resign if he loses majority in the Lok Sabha. This is a rule of Parliamentary practice but is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution.
    ii) If both the President and Vice-President demit office simultaneously before the end of their tenure, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha officiates as the President.
  • Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    A) i only
    B) ii only
    C) Both i and ii
    D) Neither i nor ii
  1. Consider the following statements regarding the Rajya Sabha:
    i) As per the Constitution, a candidate contesting an election to the Rajya Sabha from a particular State need not be an elector in that State.
    ii) The Constitution has not fixed the term of office of a Rajya Sabha member as six years; it is decided by the Rules of the Rajya Sabha.
    iii) The question of disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is decided by the Chairman in the case of Rajya Sabha.
  • Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    A) i & ii
    B) i & iii
    C) iii only
    D) ii & iii
  1. The Lieutenant Governor of a Union Territory can promulgate ordinances only:
    i) When the Legislative Assembly is dissolved
    ii) With the prior permission of the President
  • Which of the above is/are correct?
    A) i only
    B) ii only
    C) Both i and ii
    D) None of the above
  1. Which of the following employees/officers are covered under the jurisdiction of the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)?
    i) Officers and servants of the Supreme Court
    ii) The secretarial staff of the Parliament
    iii) Officers of All India Services
    iv) Civilian employees of the Defence Services
  • Select the correct answer using the code below:
    A) i, ii & iii only
    B) ii & iii only
    C) iii & iv only
    D) i, ii & iv only
  1. As the chief law officer of the State Government, the duties of the Advocate General include:
    i) To give advice to the Government of the State on legal matters referred to him by the Governor.
    ii) To perform such other duties of a legal character as are assigned to him by the Governor.
    iii) To mediate in disputes between the Centre and the State in order to bring about an agreement or reconciliation.
    iv) To give advice to the Governor for making rules for the smooth transaction of business in judicial bodies of the State.
  • Select the correct answer using the code below:
    A) i & ii only
    B) ii & iv only
    C) i, iii & iv only
    D) i, ii, iii & iv
  1. Which of the following matters require ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States for a Constitutional Amendment?
    i) Election of the President
    ii) Abolition of the Legislative Council in a State
    iii) Lists in the Seventh Schedule
    iv) Representation of States in Parliament
  • Select the correct code:
    A) i, ii & iii
    B) i, iii & iv
    C) ii, iii & iv
    D) i & iii
  1. Consider the following statements about the Legislature of Puducherry:
    i) The Legislative Assembly of Puducherry was created through an Act of Parliament.
    ii) The Puducherry Legislature includes some MLAs nominated by the Lieutenant Governor.
    iii) The Lieutenant Governor can sometimes act in his discretion in law-making, even though the Council of Ministers is tasked with aiding and advising him.
  • Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    A) i & ii
    B) i & iii
    C) iii only
    D) i, ii & iii
  1. Consider the following statements:
    i) In practice, the Chief Minister remains in office so long as he continues to be the leader of the majority in the State Legislative Assembly.
    ii) The Governor has full discretionary powers in summoning a session of the State Legislative Assembly.
    iii) The original Constitution prescribed that the total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers of a State shall not exceed 15% of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State.
  • Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    A) i only
    B) i & ii
    C) i & iii
    D) i, ii & iii
  1. What is true regarding the Delimitation Commission in India?
    i) It is headed by a retired Judge of the Supreme Court of India.
    ii) Till now, it has been constituted only four times.
    iii) Its order has the force of law and can be called in question only before the Supreme Court.
    iv) The first delimitation exercise in 1950–51 was carried out by the President with the help of the Election Commission.
  • Options:
    A) i & iii
    B) i, iii & iv
    C) i, ii & iv
    D) All of the above
  1. Consider the following statements about Panchayats in Jammu & Kashmir:
    i) A Panchayat elected in place of a dissolved one does not enjoy a full five-year term, but only remains in office for the remaining period after dissolution.
    ii) In Panchayats, seats are reserved for SCs, STs, and Women but not for Backward Classes.
    iii) A Sarpanch is deemed to have vacated office if a resolution expressing want of confidence in him is passed by a majority of not less than 1/3 of the total number of Panches of the Halqa Panchayat.
  • Which of the above is/are correct?
    A) ii only
    B) ii & iii
    C) i & ii
    D) All of the above
  1. What are the qualifications for membership of the Legislative Assembly under the J&K Reorganization Act, 2019?
    i) The person should be a Domicile of J&Kand make/subscribe an oath or affirmation before a person authorized by the Election Commission, as per the form in the Fourth Schedule.
    ii) The person should be not less than 25 years of age.
    iii) The person should possess such other qualifications as may be prescribed under any law made by Parliament.
  • Choose the correct statement:
    A) All of the above
    B) i only
    C) ii only
    D) ii & iii
  1. Consider the following statements:
    i) Life expectancy of India’s population has almost doubled since Independence.
    ii) Lakshadweep has the highest literacy rate after Kerala.
  • Which of the statements is/are correct?
    A) i only
    B) ii only
    C) Both i and ii
    D) Neither i nor ii
  1. Identify the city based on the following:
    i) Known as the “Scotland of the East”.
    ii) Waterfalls include Spread Eagle, Elephant, and Beadon.
    iii) As per 2011 Census, male literacy is 85%, and female literacy is 92.34%.
  • Options:
    A) Guwahati
    B) Agartala
    C) Shillong
    D) Dispur
  1. Mango showers in the pre-monsoon season are associated with:
    A) Kerala and Karnataka
    B) Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
    C) Assam and Meghalaya
    D) Bihar and West Bengal
  2. Consider the following statements regarding Jet Streams:
    i) Jet streams are fast-moving air currents found in the upper troposphere, blowing west to east in the Northern Hemisphere and east to west in the Southern Hemisphere.
    ii) Their circulation is wavy and meandering, called Rossby waves.
    iii) The speed in jet streams decreases radially outwards.
  • Choose the correct answer:
    A) i only
    B) ii only
    C) Both i and ii
    D) Neither i nor ii
  1. Mahogany, Rosewood, and Ebony are important species of which type of natural vegetation?
    A) Tropical Rain Forest
    B) Dry Deciduous Forest
    C) Moist Deciduous Forest
    D) Taiga Forest
  2. Consider the following statements regarding Kolleru Lake:
    i) It is a freshwater lake, located between the deltas of the Krishna and Godavari rivers.
    ii) It was the first Indian site to be declared a wetland under the Ramsar Convention.
  • Select the correct statement(s):
    A) i only
    B) ii only
    C) Both i and ii
    D) Neither i nor ii
  1. Consider the following statements regarding the New Numbering System for National Highways in India:
    i) All North-South oriented highways will have even numbers increasing from east to west.
    ii) All East-West oriented highways will have odd numbers increasing from north to south.
  • Select the incorrect statement(s):
    A) i only
    B) ii only
    C) Both i and ii
    D) Neither i nor ii
  1. Which international agency acts as the mediator between India and Pakistan on the Indus Water Treaty?
    A) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
    B) International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
    C) World Bank
    D) World Wildlife Fund (WWF)
  1. Consider the following statements about Karewa and state which is/are correct:
    i) They are horizontally stratified deposits formed of beds of fine-grained sand and loam with lenticular bands of gravelly conglomerate.
    ii) They are Pleistocene deposits also known as Wudur.
    iii) The highest limit at which they have been observed is 3800 meters.
  • Options:
    A) Only i
    B) i & ii
    C) All of the above
    D) i & iii
  1. Consider the following statements about the Indus River and point out which is not correct:
    i) The Senge-Khambab is its headstream.
    ii) Shyok and Shigar are its tributaries.
    iii) Its total length in India is 709 km.
  • Options:
    A) iii only
    B) i & iii
    C) ii & iii
    D) None of the above
  1. The Erin, Madhumati, Ranshi, and Ferozepur are tributaries of:
    A) Ravi River
    B) Chenab River
    C) Jhelum River
    D) Tawi River
  2. Which of the following is also known as the “Shining Crest of the Earth”?
    A) Zanskar Range
    B) Pir Panjal Range
    C) Karakoram Range
    D) Dhaula Dhar Range
  3. The Valley of Kashmir comprises the following physiographic divisions, state the correct answer:
    A) Valley floor, Karewa, Side valleys
    B) Kandi, Karewa, Duns
    C) Valley floor, Khads, Glaciers
    D) Khan, Karewa, Pamir
  4. Consider the correct statement:
    i) The Anderwah and Bajwat are alluvial plains of Chenab, Tawi, and Ravi rivers.
    ii) Dhauladhar and Pir Panjal are a part of this region.
    iii) They are drained by Basantar, Ujh, and Manawar Tawi rivers.
    iv) They are found on the southern side of the Union Territory of J&K.
  • Options:
    A) i & iii
    B) i, ii & iii
    C) i, iii & iv
    D) All of the above
  1. Which climate regions are correctly matched:
  • Region
  • Koeppen’s Classification
  • i) Ladakh
  • Dwd
  • ii) Hilly parts of J&K
  • Dfb
  • iii) Jammu plains
  • Ca
  • iv) Kashmir valley
  • Aw
  • Options:
    A) i & ii
    B) i, ii & iii
    C) i, ii & iv 
    D) All of the above
  1. Which of the following statements is true about blockchain?
    A) A blockchain is a decentralized, distributed, and oftentimes public digital ledger consisting of records called blocks.
    B) A blockchain database is managed autonomously using a peer-to-peer network and a distributed timestamping server.
    C) A blockchain has been described as a value exchange protocol.
    D) All of the above
  2. Why would HTTP Tunneling be used?
    A) To identify proxy servers
    B) Web activity is not scanned
    C) To bypass a firewall
    D) HTTP is an easy protocol to work with
  3. Which of the following is not a cybercrime?
    A) Denial of Service
    B) Man in the Middle
    C) Malware
    D) Advanced Encryption Standard
  4. What is the purpose of a Denial of Service (DoS) Attack?
    A) Exploit a weakness in the TCP/IP stack
    B) To execute a Trojan on a system
    C) To overload a system so it is no longer operational
    D) To shut down services by turning them off
  5. Cloud Bursting is related to which of the following in Cloud Computing?
    A) Scalability
    B) Redundancy
    C) Availability
    D) None of these
  6. As a person working in an internet banking environment, why should you be aware of the “Dictionary Attack”?
    A) It is used to inject worms or viruses into the system
    B) It is used to determine a password
    C) It is used to access a customer’s account by determining other details
    D) It is used for stealing information from a credit card
  7. Consider the following statements about the Metaverse:
    i) It is considered a post-internet world.
    ii) It is a parallel virtual world.
  • Which of the above is/are correct?
    A) Only i
    B) Only ii
    C) i and ii
    D) None of the above
  1. Why does the data communication industry use the layered OSI reference model?
  2. i) It divides the network communication process into smaller and simpler components, thus aiding component development, design, and troubleshooting.
    ii) It enables equipment from different vendors to use the same electronic components, thus saving research and development funds.
    iii) It supports the evolution of multiple competing standards and thus provides business opportunities for equipment manufacturers.
    iv) It encourages industry standardization by defining what functions occur at each layer of the model.
  • Options:
    A) i only
    B) i and iv
    C) i, ii, iii
    D) iii only
  1. On the keyboard of the computer, each character has an “ASCII” value, which stands for:
    A) American Stock Code for Information Interchange
    B) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
    C) African Standard Code for Information Interchange
    D) Adaptable Standard Code for Information Interchange
  2. What does ‘BY’ mean in reference to copyright symbols?
    A) This means the work can be shared but not for commercial use
    B) It allows the work to be shared but only in the way specified and with attribution given to the creator
    C) This means the work can be shared exactly as it has been created without alteration
    D) This means the work can be shared and derivatives made but only if you share with the same license
  3. The Working Capital of Primary Agricultural Credit Co-operative Society (PACS) is composed of:
    A) Investment and Borrowings
    B) Public Deposits & Government Borrowings
    C) Share Capital, Reserve Fund, Deposits & Borrowings
    D) Share Capital & Investments
  4. One of the main objectives of the Schulze-Delitzsch Society was:
    A) To fulfill the credit requirements of traders, artisans, and middle-class people residing in urban areas
    B) To provide credit needs of farmers in rural areas
    C) To fulfill the needs of industrial people in rural areas
    D) To promote the Co-operative Movement in England
  5. According to the Jammu and Kashmir Self-Reliant Co-operatives Act 1999, Section 5 deals with:
    A) Name of the Co-operatives
    B) Amalgamation of the Society
    C) Co-operative to be Body Corporate
    D) Registration
  6. The objective of the Constitution (97th Amendment) Act, 2011 is to:
    A) Earn profit for the society
    B) Render services to the members
    C) Collect deposits from the public
    D) Ensure that Co-operative societies in the country function in a democratic, professional, autonomous, and economically sound manner
  1. According to Section 59(1) of the J&K Co-operative Societies Act, 1989, what percent of Net Profits will be used to create the Reserve Fund?
    A) An amount not being less than twenty-five percent
    B) An amount not being less than thirty percent
    C) An amount not being less than thirty-five percent
    D) An amount not being less than forty percent
  2. Match the following:
  •  
  • Institute
  • Location
  • a) Central Tuber Crops Research Institute
  • i) Thiruvananthapuram (Kerala)
  • b) Central Sheep & Wool Research Institute
  • ii) Avikanagar (Rajasthan)
  • c) Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute
  • iii) Kochi (Kerala)
  • d) Indian Institute of Sugar Cane Research
  • iv) Lucknow (U.P)
  •  
  • Options:
    A) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
    B) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
    C) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
    D) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
  1. The book “Ends and Means of Co-operative Development” is written by:
    A) Dr. R.C. Dwivedi
    B) Dr. B.S. Mathur
    C) T.N. Hajela
    D) S.S. Puri
  2. Which committee recommended the establishment of NABARD?
    A) Sri B. Sivaraman Committee (CRAFI CARD)
    B) Sri Gorwala Committee (AIRCSC)
    C) Sri Vengetappiya Committee (ARCRC)
    D) Co-operative Planning Commission
  3. The important role of National Agricultural Co-operative Marketing Federation (NAFED) is to undertake:
    A) Price Support Operations
    B) Active Price System
    C) Marketing System
    D) Financial System
  4. The establishment of the State Bank of India and, through it, the extension of commercial bank facilities to rural and semi-urban centres was one of the recommendations of:
    A) All India Rural Credit Survey Committee
    B) All India Rural Credit Review Committee
    C) Report of the Banking Commission
    D) Co-operation Committee
  5. According to the Jammu and Kashmir Co-operative Societies Act, 1989, Chapter XII deals with:
    A) Government aid to Co-operatives
    B) Housing Societies
    C) Agricultural & Rural Development Banks
    D) Offences and Penalties
  6. According to Section 29B, Subsection (1) of the J&K Co-operative Societies Act, 1989, the Chief Executive Officer or the members of the committee of an Apex Co-operative Bank or a Central Co-operative Bank shall fulfill such qualifications and criteria as prescribed by:
    A) The Reserve Bank or National Bank
    B) The Registrar of Co-operative Societies
    C) Managing Director of the Apex Co-operative Bank
    D) National Co-operative Bank Federation
  7. The UN General Assembly in 1992 proclaimed, in one of its resolutions, the International Day of Co-operatives, to be celebrated annually on:
    A) The 1st Saturday of July
    B) The 14th of November
    C) The 2nd of October
    D) The 1st of May
  8. One of the functions of the General Body of a co-operative society is to:
    i) Approve the annual accounts and budget of the society
    ii) Approve appointment of qualified auditors for auditing yearly accounts of the society
    iii) Create specific reserves and other funds
    iv) Approve the members’ borrowing powers
  • Options:
    A) Only i
    B) i and ii
    C) i, ii and iii
    D) All of the above
  1. The National Agricultural Credit Stabilization Fund was created for the purpose of:
    A) Granting medium-term loans to State Co-operative Banks
    B) Granting long-term loans to Primary Co-operative Agricultural and Rural Development Banks
    C) Granting short-term loans to Urban Co-operative Banks
    D) Granting crop loans to PACS
  2. What is the importance of Section 66 of the J&K Co-operative Societies Act, 1989?
    A) Inspection of Books of a Co-operative Society
    B) Disposal of Share Capital and Dividend of a Society
    C) Procedure for Calculation of Profits
    D) Surcharge
  3. “The accumulated losses from the loans of DCCB to other Co-operatives should be shared by the State Government in proportion to guaranteed loans to total outstanding loans of the same category, with the Union Government taking the balance.” Which Committee pointed this out?
    A) Banking Committee
    B) Prof. A. Vaithiyanathan Committee
    C) Prof. Tendulkar Committee
    D) Khusro Committee
  4. Members have “the right to form Co-operative Societies as a Fundamental Right.” This was done by amending Article:
    A) 14(1)(D) of the Constitution
    B) 19(1)(C) of the Constitution
    C) 15(1)(D) of the Constitution
    D) None of the above
  5. One of the main features of a Co-operative Farming Society is:
    A) Ownership of land continues to be with the individual member
    B) Ownership of the land transferred to Company
    C) Ownership of the land transferred to Society
    D) Ownership of the land transferred to Government
  6. Which is the Apex Body of the Indian Co-operative Movement?
    A) Indian Farmers Fertilizer Co-operative Ltd.
    B) National Co-operative Union of India
    C) National Co-operative Agricultural Marketing Federation
    D) National Co-operative Development Corporation
  7. Who appoints the “Registrar” of Co-operative Societies of the State?
    A) State Assembly
    B) State Government
    C) RBI
    D) NABARD
  8. The Registrar will take a decision regarding the registration of the society within how many days of receipt of the application for registration?
    A) 15 days
    B) 45 days
    C) 30 days
    D) 90 days
  1. A person has mistaken the image of a clock in a plane mirror and read the time as 6:10. What was the correct time?
    A) 6:50
    B) 5:50
    C) 5:10
    D) 7:50
  • Study the following information carefully and answer Q83–Q87:
    Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting in a straight line facing south but not necessarily in the same order.
  • G does not sit at any end of the line.
  • B sits second to the right of D.
  • H sits second to the left of F.
  • A sits third to the left of C and second to the right of E.
  • B is not an immediate neighbour of A.
  1. In which of the following pairs is only one person sitting between them?
    A) F, E
    B) D, A
    C) G, E
    D) H, B
  2. Who among the following sits third to the right of E?
    A) G
    B) H
    C) D
    D) C
  3. What is the position of G with respect to A?
    A) Second to the right
    B) Third to the left
    C) Immediate right
    D) Fourth to the right
  4. Who among the following sits exactly between E and A?
    A) G
    B) H
    C) D
    D) F
  5. Who among the following sit at the extreme ends of the line?
    A) H, B
    B) E, B
    C) F, G
    D) G, E
  6. Complete the series: 2, 6, 15, 40, 145, …
    A) 349
    B) 466
    C) 632
    D) 756
  7. Smita is facing South. If she turns to her left by 90°, then turns to her right by 270°, then turns to her left by 135°, which way is she facing?
    A) South West
    B) North West
    C) North East
    D) South East
  8. Akash, Barkha, Chandni, Dhruv, and Tara are sitting in a row.
  • Tara is on the right of Dhruv.
  • Barkha is on the left of Dhruv, but on the right of Chandni.
  • Tara is on the left of Akash.
  • Question: Who is sitting first from the left?
    A) Barkha
    B) Tara
    C) Chandni
    D) Akash
  1. A Watermelon costs Rs. 5 each. A Pineapple costs Rs. 7 each. X spends Rs. 38 on these fruits.
  • Question: The number of Pineapples purchased is:
    A) 4
    B) 3
    C) 2
    D) 1
  1. Ravi decided to cycle along a certain trajectory:
  • He left home and cycled 10 km southwards,
  • Turned right and cycled 5 km,
  • Turned right and cycled 10 km,
  • Turned left and cycled 10 km.
  • Question: How many km will he have to cycle straight to reach back home?
    A) 15 km
    B) 5 km
    C) 0 km
    D) 20 km
  1. Four statements are given followed by four conclusions. Assume the statements are true.
  • Statements:
  1. Some doctors are lawyers.
  2. All teachers are lawyers.
  3. Some engineers are lawyers.
  4. All engineers are businessmen.
  • Conclusions:
    I. Some teachers are doctors.
    II. Some businessmen are lawyers.
    III. Some businessmen are teachers.
    IV. Some lawyers are teachers.
  • Question: Which of the given conclusions logically follows?
    A) None follows
    B) Only II follows
    C) Only III follows
    D) Only II and IV follow
  1. Four friends in the sixth grade were sharing a pizza.
  • The oldest friend would get the extra piece.
  • Randy is two months older than Greg, who is three months younger than Ned.
  • Kent is one month older than Greg.
  • Question: Who should get the extra piece of pizza?
    A) Randy
    B) Greg
    C) Ned
    D) Kent
  1. How many triangles are there in the given figure?
  1. A) 23
    B) 53
    C) 43
    D) None of these
  2. Count the number of triangles and squares in the given figure:
  1. A) 40 triangles, 7 squares
    B) 35 triangles, 6 squares
    C) 41 triangles, 10 squares
    D) 35 triangles, 9 squares
  2. Logical reasoning:
  • Four erasers cost the same as one ruler.
  • Three pencils cost the same as two erasers.
  • Question: If the above statements are true, then:
    Pencils are more expensive than rulers.
  1. A) True
    B) False
    C) Cannot be determined
    D) None of the above
  2. A train continuously runs between Lucknow and Delhi:
  • Total journey time: 2.5 hours.
  • Announcement at the station: the train from Lucknow had left 40 minutes ago.
  • Next train will leave at 18:00 hrs (scheduled time for first train to reach New Delhi).
  • Question: At what time was the announcement made?
    A) 15:20 hours
    B) 16:10 hours
    C) 16:20 hours
    D) None of these
  •  
  • Passage (for Questions 99–103):
  • Passage for Questions (99–103):
  • Now, woman has always been man’s dependent, if not his slave; the two sexes have never shared the world in equality. And even today, woman is heavily handicapped, though her situation is beginning to change. Almost nowhere is her legal status the same as man’s, and frequently it is much to her disadvantage. Even when her rights are legally recognised in the abstract, long-standing custom prevents their full expression in the mores.
  • In the economic sphere, men and women can almost be said to make up two castes: other things being equal, the former hold the better jobs, get higher wages, and have more opportunity for success than their new competitors. In industry and politics, men have a great many more positions and they monopolise the most important posts. In addition to all this, they enjoy a traditional prestige that the education of children tends in every way to support, for the present enshrines the past—and in the past all history has been made by men.
  • At the present time, when women are beginning to take part in the affairs of the world, it is still a world that belongs to men—they have no doubt of it at all, and women have scarcely any. To decline to be the other, to refuse to be a party to the deal—this would be for women to renounce all the advantages conferred upon them by their alliance with the superior caste. Man—the sovereign—will provide woman—the liege—with material protection and will undertake the moral justification of her existence; thus she can evade at once both economic risk and the metaphysical risk of a liberty in which ends and aims must be contrived without assistance.
  • Indeed, along with the ethical urge of each individual to affirm his subjective existence, there is also the temptation to forgo liberty and become a thing. This is an inauspicious road, for he who takes it—passive, lost, ruined—becomes henceforth the creature of another’s will, frustrated in his transcendence and deprived of every value. But it is an easy road; on it one avoids the strain involved in undertaking an authentic existence.
  • When man makes of woman the other, he may then expect to manifest deep-seated tendencies towards complicity. Thus, woman may fail to lay claim to the status of subject because she lacks definite resources, because she feels the necessary bond that ties her to man regardless of reciprocity, and because she is often very well pleased with her role as the other.
  1. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the above passage?
  2. A) Women have always been dominated by men.
    B) Society has begun to experience some changes in the status of men and women.
    C) The changes in society are sufficient to provide women with complete legal equality.
    D) Changes in society regarding the status of women are not yet adequate to ensure equal treatment.
  3. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?
  4. A) Women face inequality in the economic sphere.
    B) Men get higher wages and more success.
    C) Men monopolise major important posts.
    D) Women are provided equal opportunities but not equal wages.
  5. Complicity on the part of men can be accounted for by:
  6. A) The structure of the family
    B) The othering of women
    C) Status of men as stronger than women
    D) Economic inequality among men and women
  7. Why do women accept the category of “other”?
  8. A) It is conferred upon them by men who are in power.
    B) They lack the means and resources to reject it.
    C) To maintain a peaceful relationship with men to whom they are related.
    D) It is easy, keeps them safe and secure, and ensures their wellbeing without much effort.
  9. Which of the following is a synonym of “contrived”?
  10. A) Concoct
    B) Dissuade
    C) Perusal
    D) Commensurate
  • Passage for Questions 104–108:
  • Passage for Questions (104–108):
  • What, then, is it to learn something? In fact, this is a question which I shall, in effect, shelve for the time being, and it may be that I shall have nothing very illuminating to say about it directly. But I shelve it quite deliberately. One might, of course, say that to learn something is to acquire knowledge of it through experience, but this, although correct as far as it goes, is not likely to be enlightening because, apart from other vaguenesses in the formulation, much depends on the ‘something’ in question.
  • To learn a list of words or a set of formulae, to learn to play the piano or to ride a bicycle, to learn a language or a technique, and to learn a subject or a discipline are all very different things. Although they all involve the acquisition of knowledge, that knowledge is of quite different forms.
  • To learn a list of words, simple rote-learning, as it is called, is nothing more than to memorize that list, and the knowledge involved is merely the knowledge of the words in their appropriate order. In skills such as that involved in riding a bicycle, ‘knowing how’ comes to play a role, and the acquisition of such skills may involve practice as much as does rote-learning, even if in a different way.
  • But here too other things begin to emerge, for few skills could be acquired by practice alone in the most rudimentary sense of that word, and few are in any way independent of some understanding of the issues involved. You could not play the piano without some such understanding, and practice in this case, if it deserves the name, must be intelligent practice. The existence of such understanding may indeed be implied whenever we speak of knowing how to do something, and this, among other things, distinguishes knowing how to do something from merely being able to do it.
  • When we come to learning a language or a technique, and even more so with learning a subject, the appreciation and understanding of the subject and its principles comes to the fore. With the understanding of principles goes the ability to use certain concepts. If there is a distinction to be made between my two last categories, it is that learning a language or a technique is inevitably a practical matter in a way that learning a subject is not so obviously so. But this is a matter of emphasis only; technique and intellectual understanding, theory and practice cannot be completely divorced from each other.
  1. What is meant by learning as per the passage?
  2. A) Rote memorization
    B) Acquiring language through experience
    C) Requires proper investigation
    D) Knowing how
  3. “Knowing how” refers to:
  4. A) Knowledge of doing something
    B) Knowledge of the process of doing something
    C) Knowing the process of doing something and its practice
    D) Practicing doing something
  5. “Knowing how” involves:
  6. A) Theoretical knowledge
    B) Practice
    C) Practical knowledge
    D) Theoretical and practical knowledge
  7. Find the word from the passage closest in meaning to “abecedarian”:
  8. A) Deliberately
    B) Emphasis
    C) Illuminating
    D) Rudimentary
  9. Find the word from the passage which is opposite in meaning to “inconspicuous”:
  10. A) Obviously
    B) Vaguenesses
    C) Merely
    D) Ability
  • Passage for Questions (109–113):
  • He alone has his own way who, to compass it, does not need the arm of another to lengthen his own. Consequently, freedom, and not authority, is the greatest good; a man who desires only what he can do for himself is really free to do whatever he pleases.
  • From this axiom, if it be applied to the case of childhood, all the rules of education will follow. A wise man understands how to remain in his own place, but a child, who does not know his, cannot preserve it. As matters stand, there are a thousand ways of leaving it. Those who govern him are to keep him in it, and this is not an easy task.
  • He ought to be neither an animal nor a man, but a child. He should feel his weakness, and yet not suffer from it. He should depend, not obey; he should demand, not command. He is subject to others only by reason of his needs, and because others see better than he what is useful to him, what will contribute to his well-being or will impair it. No one, not even his father, has a right to command a child to do what is of no use to him whatever.
  • Accustom the child to depend only on circumstances, and as his education goes on, you will follow the order of nature. Never oppose to his imprudent wishes anything but physical obstacles, or punishments which arise from the actions themselves, and which he will remember when the occasion comes. It is enough to prevent his doing harm, without forbidding it. With him only experience, or want of power, should take the place of law.
  • Do not give him anything because he asks for it, but because he needs it. When he acts, do not let him know that it is from obedience, and when another acts for him, let him not feel that he is exercising authority. Let him feel his liberty as much in your actions as in his own. Add to the power he lacks exactly enough to make him free and not imperious, so that, accepting your aid with a kind of humiliation, he may aspire to the moment when he can dispense with it, and have the honor of serving himself.
  • For strengthening the body and promoting its growth, nature has means which ought never to be thwarted. A child ought not to be constrained to stay anywhere when he wishes to go away, or to go away when he wishes to stay. When their will is not spoiled by our own fault, children do not wish for anything without good reason. They ought to leap, to run, to shout, whenever they will. All their movements are necessities of nature, which is endeavouring to strengthen itself.
  • But we must take heed of those wishes they cannot themselves accomplish, but must fulfil by the hand of another. Therefore care should be taken to distinguish the real wants, the wants of nature, from those which arise from fancy or from the redundant life just mentioned.
  1. The education of the child:
    A) Must teach him to respect his elders
    B) Must respect his free will
    C) Must take care of his wishes
    D) Must teach him to attain power
  2. The education of a child should be governed by:
    A) The child himself
    B) The adult, as they always know what is best for him
    C) The ideal of freedom
    D) The context of the child
  3. The education of the child should be such that:
    i) He gets what he needs
    ii) Follows the order of nature
    iii) He can fulfil all his desires
  • Choose the correct option:
    A) Only i is correct
    B) Only i and ii are correct
    C) Only iii is correct
    D) Only ii and iii are correct
  1. Choose the word from the passage that is closest in meaning to ignominy.
    A) Desires
    B) Governs
    C) Humiliation
    D) Growth
  2. Choose the word from the passage which is closest in meaning to cosset.
    A) Well-being
    B) Thwarted
    C) Axiom
    D) Spoiled
  • Passage for Questions (114–118):
  • The Co-operative movement in India was started by far-sighted colonial officials who wanted to enable farmers to get out of the clutches of the usurious money-lenders. Subsequently, the scope of Co-operatives got extended beyond agricultural credit to cover numerous other activities including production, finance, and marketing. It may be added that Co-operatives became an instrument of the development state in the post-Independence era.
  • Though the expansion in the scope and reach of co-operatives as a whole is impressive, they are rigged with all sorts of problems. As the cooperatives have become central to government policy on rural credit, they have come to be entrenched power centres for doling out patronage, financial help, and political support. Their processes and activities are highly uneven across activities and regions. Their growth continues to be driven by government actions rather than as a mass grass-roots movement motivated by the basic ethos and spirit of a Co-operative enterprise.
  • It may also be argued that the manner in which Co-operatives are organised and function, they are not the most conducive institutions for the efficient and prudent use of the vast resources at their disposal. Mechanisms to ensure accountability for efficient conduct of business and for benefiting sections of the population that they are expected to cater to are weak and ineffective. With a few significant exceptions, their finances are in a chronic state of sickness and prone to crisis. Therefore, one may posit that these weak institutions are in urgent need of reforms.
  1. Which of the following is the most apt title for the passage?
    A) Colonialism and Co-operative movement
    B) Co-operative enterprises and their altruistic origins
    C) Vision of Co-operatives in India
    D) Crisis of Co-operative institutions in India
  2. In reference to the passage, read the statements given below:
    i) Co-operatives in India are significant institutions in terms of reach and volume of work.
    ii) Co-operatives in India are inefficient and unreliable institutions due to undue political influences and lack of accountability.
    Which of the statements above is/are correct?
    A) Only i
    B) Only ii
    C) Both i and ii
    D) Neither i nor ii
  3. As per the passage, which of the following words best describes the origin of the Co-operatives in India?
    A) Ideological
    B) Altruistic
    C) Oppressive
    D) Strategic
  4. As per the author, why are the Co-operatives weak institutions?
    A) Because they are outdated
    B) Because they are pedantic
    C) Because they are inefficient
    D) Because they lack visibility
  5. Which of the following problems of the Co-operatives is NOT highlighted in the passage?
    A) Deficient resources
    B) Political interference
    C) Lack of functional accountability
    D) Non-standardised practices across regions
  6. Consider the following statements:
    i) UNSC designated Srinagar as a part of its Creative Cities network (UCCN) in 2021.
    ii) Khalij Pheasant was declared the state bird of J&K.
    iii) Union territory of J&K joined hands with a UK-based space agency for impact-based flood forecasting.
    Which of the following are correct?
    A) Only ii
    B) i & ii
    C) ii & iii
    D) All of the above
  7. Which herb is being cultivated in Jammu as part of the Aroma Mission?
    A) Lavender
    B) Parsley
    C) Mint
    D) Basil
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